Category Archives: Ex Servicemen (ESM)

Railway Group D Recruitment 2026 : 22,000+ Vacancies

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Indian Railways has officially announced the RRB Group D Recruitment 2026, opening the door to 22,000+ Level-1 posts across multiple railway zones in India. This recruitment drive is aimed at 10th pass and ITI-qualified candidates who want a secure central government job with long-term benefits.

Railway Group D jobs remain one of the most popular choices among government job aspirants due to job stability, decent salary, promotions, and retirement benefits.

What Is RRB Group D Recruitment?

RRB Group D recruitment is conducted by the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) to fill entry-level positions in Indian Railways. These roles support daily railway operations and offer a solid career foundation for candidates from technical and non-technical backgrounds.

RRB Group D 2026 – Key Highlights

ParticularsDetails
Recruiting BodyRailway Recruitment Board
Post CategoryGroup D (Level-1)
Total Vacancies22,000+
Pay ScaleLevel-1 (7th CPC)
Job LocationAll India
Eligibility10th Pass / ITI
Application ModeOnline
Selection StagesCBT, PET, DV, Medical

Official Dates You Should Remember

  • Notification Issued: 27 December 2025
  • Online Form Start Date: 31 January 2026
  • Last Date to Apply: 2 March 2026
  • Exam Date: To be notified later

Candidates are advised not to wait till the last date due to heavy traffic on the portal.

Posts Covered Under Group D Recruitment

The recruitment includes several Level-1 roles such as:

  • Track Maintainer Grade-IV
  • Helper / Assistant in Electrical, Mechanical & Engineering departments
  • Assistant Pointsman
  • Hospital Assistant
  • Operations and maintenance support roles

Final allocation depends on merit, preference, and medical fitness.

Eligibility Conditions Explained Simply

Educational Requirement

You are eligible if you have:

  • Passed Class 10, or
  • Completed ITI from NCVT/SCVT, or
  • Hold a National Apprenticeship Certificate

Age Criteria

  • Minimum: 18 years
  • Maximum: 33 years

Relaxation in upper age limit applies to reserved categories as per government norms.

Salary Structure & Benefits

  • Basic Pay: ₹18,000 per month
  • In-hand Salary: Around ₹22,000 – ₹25,000 per month

Additional benefits include:

  • Dearness Allowance
  • House Rent Allowance
  • Free railway passes
  • Medical facilities for employee & family
  • Pension under NPS
  • Career growth through internal exams

Selection Process – Step by Step

1. Computer Based Test (CBT)

An objective exam covering:

  • Mathematics
  • Reasoning & Intelligence
  • General Science
  • Current Affairs & General Awareness

2. Physical Efficiency Test (PET)

Candidates qualifying CBT must clear physical standards.

3. Document Verification

Original certificates are verified.

4. Medical Examination

Final fitness check as per railway standards.

Application Fee Details

CategoryFee
General / OBC / EWS₹500
SC / ST / Female / PwBD / Ex-Servicemen₹250

A portion of the fee is refunded after appearing in CBT.

How to Apply for Railway Group D 2026

Follow these steps carefully:

  1. Go to the official RRB online application portal
  2. Select your preferred RRB zone
  3. Register using personal details
  4. Complete the application form
  5. Upload photograph and signature
  6. Pay the application fee online
  7. Submit and save the confirmation page

✅ Official Online Application Link:

https://www.rrbapply.gov.in

Why Railway Group D Is a Smart Career Choice

  • Permanent central government job
  • Stable income with regular increments
  • Strong work-life balance
  • Promotion opportunities
  • Nationwide postings
  • Retirement security

Final Takeaway

The RRB Group D Recruitment 2026 is a major opportunity for candidates looking to enter Indian Railways with minimal educational requirements. With over 22,000 vacancies, competition will be high — but early application and focused preparation can give you an edge.

👉 Apply before 2 March 2026 and start preparing without delay.

Defence Pension in India 2026: Complete Guide for Army, Navy & Air Force

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Defence pension is a key benefit for personnel serving in the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. It ensures financial security after retirement, disability, or death during service. Understanding types of pensions, eligibility criteria, calculation methods, and family benefits is essential for service members and their dependents. This guide provides a comprehensive, up-to-date overview of defence pensions in India 2026, including examples, family pension rules, and reservist pensions.

🪖 What Is Defence Pension?

Defence pension is a regular monetary benefit provided to retired defence personnel and their legal dependents. It is governed by the Department of Ex‑Servicemen Welfare (DESW), Ministry of Defence under:

  • Army Pension Regulations (Part I & II)
  • Navy Pension Regulations
  • Air Force Pension Regulations
  • One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme Guidelines

These pensions ensure that personnel and their families remain financially secure, regardless of whether the retirement was voluntary, compulsory, due to disability, or after death in service.

🔑 Types of Defence Pension

1. Service Pension

Eligibility:

  • Officers: Minimum 20 years of service
  • Personnel Below Officer Rank (PBOR): Minimum 15 years of service

Calculation Example:

  • Officer retires after 25 years; last drawn basic pay ₹80,000 → Pension = 50% × 80,000 = ₹40,000/month
  • PBOR retires after 20 years; last drawn pay ₹50,000 → Pension = 50% × 50,000 = ₹25,000/month

Authority: DESW, Army/Navy/Air Force Pension Regulations

2. Family Pension

Eligibility:

  • Spouse, unmarried children (up to 25 years), disabled children (for life), dependent parents (if no spouse/children)

Qualifying Service:

  • Officers: Minimum 20 years
  • PBOR: Minimum 15 years
  • Death in service may qualify regardless of minimum service

Death Scenarios & Pension Rates:

  1. Death During Active Duty / Operations
    • Pension: Special rate 60% of last drawn emoluments
    • Example: Officer last pay ₹80,000 → Pension = 60% × 80,000 = ₹48,000/month
  2. Death During Leave
    • If death service-related: Special family pension (60%)
    • If death non-service/natural: Ordinary pension (30%)
    • Example: Officer last pay ₹80,000 → Pension = 30–60% × 80,000 = ₹24,000–48,000/month
  3. Death Due to Civil/Non-Service Reasons
    • Ordinary pension 30%
    • Example: Officer last pay ₹80,000 → Pension = 30% × 80,000 = ₹24,000/month
  4. Death Attributable to Service / War Casualty
    • Pension may be 60–100% of last pay
    • Children pension continues until 25 years/unmarried or life if disabled
    • Example: Officer killed in action; last pay ₹80,000 → Pension = 60–100% × 80,000 = ₹48,000–80,000/month
  5. Death After Retirement / Pensioner Death
    • Pension continues according to qualifying service at retirement
    • Ordinary rate: 30%, Special rate: 50–60%
    • Example: Retired officer last pay ₹70,000 → Family pension = ₹21,000–42,000/month

Authority: DESW, Army/Navy/Air Force Pension Regulations

3. Disability Pension

Eligibility:

  • Personnel permanently disabled due to service

Example:

  • Officer disabled with 40% permanent disability; last drawn pay ₹70,000
  • Pension = 50% service pension + 40% disability element = 35,000 + 28,000 = ₹63,000/month

Authority: DESW, Army/Navy/Air Force Pension Regulations

4. Invalid Pension

Eligibility:

  • Personnel incapacitated not due to service
  • Minimum 15 years for PBOR, 20 years for officers (exceptions may apply)

Example:

  • Sailor retires after 16 years; last pay ₹40,000 → Invalid pension = 50% × 40,000 = ₹20,000/month

Authority: DESW, Army/Navy/Air Force Pension Regulations

5. Reservist Pension (Elaborated)

Eligibility:

  • PBOR: Combined active + reserve service ≥ 15 years
  • Officers: Active service + reserve duties considered case by case
  • Includes service in Territorial Army, Army Reserve, or other recognized reserves

Calculation:

  • Standard: 2/3 × Last drawn active service pay

Example 1:

  • Soldier completes 10 years active + 8 years reserve; last pay ₹35,000 → Pension = 2/3 × 35,000 = ₹23,333/month

Example 2:

  • PBOR completes 15 years active + 5 years reserve; last pay ₹40,000 → Pension = 2/3 × 40,000 = ₹26,667/month

Purpose:

  • Encourages continued reserve service
  • Provides financial security for reserve personnel
  • Family pension applies if death occurs during reserve service
  • Can be commuted upfront like service pension

Authority: DESW, Army/Navy/Air Force Pension Regulations

6. One Rank One Pension (OROP)

  • Ensures personnel of same rank and service length receive same pension irrespective of retirement date
  • Revisions every five years

Example:

  • Two Captains retired in 2010 & 2020, 20 years each → Pension adjusted to same amount, e.g., ₹50,000/month

Authority: DESW, Ministry of Defence

🪖 Pension Eligibility: Army, Navy & Air Force

BranchOfficersPBORMinimum Service
Army20 years15 years20/15 years respectively
Navy20 years15 years20/15 years respectively
Air Force20 years15 years20/15 years respectively

Note: Death or disability during service may override minimum service requirements

Authority: DESW, Army/Navy/Air Force Pension Regulations

📌 Other Benefits

  • Commutation of Pension: Lump sum upfront
  • Gratuity: One-time payment at retirement
  • SPARSH Pension System: Digital portal for pension management
  • Pension Adalats: Forums for grievance resolution

Authority: DESW, Ministry of Defence

📝 Documents Required

  • Pension application forms
  • Service records & discharge papers
  • Death certificate (family pension)
  • Bank & identity proofs
  • Medical certificates (disability/invalid pension)
  • Nomination forms for family pension

Authority: DESW, Ministry of Defence

🏁 Key Takeaways

  • Defence pensions include Service, Family, Disability, Invalid, Reservist, and OROP
  • Family pension covers death during duty, leave, civil/non-service causes, and post-retirement
  • Spouse first, then children (up to 25/unmarried or disabled), then dependent parents
  • Pension depends on rank, last pay, qualifying service, and circumstances of death
  • OROP ensures same pension for same rank/service across years
  • Proper documentation and awareness of DESW rules are essential

RBI Office Attendant Recruitment 2026: 572 Posts

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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the RBI Office Attendant Recruitment 2026 notification for filling 572 Office Attendant vacancies across various RBI offices in India. This recruitment drive is a great opportunity for 10th pass candidates seeking a central government job with excellent salary, job security, and long-term benefits.

In this post, you will find complete and authentic details about RBI Office Attendant 2026 including notification link, online application link, eligibility criteria, age limit, exam pattern, syllabus, salary, and selection process.

RBI Office Attendant Recruitment 2026 – Overview

DetailsInformation
OrganisationReserve Bank of India
Post NameOffice Attendant
Total Vacancies572
Recruitment Year2026
Job TypeCentral Government Job
Application ModeOnline
Selection ProcessOnline Exam + Language Proficiency Test
Job LocationAcross India

RBI Office Attendant Notification 2026 (Official)

Candidates can download and read the official notification here:

👉 Official Notification Link:
https://opportunities.rbi.org.in

RBI Office Attendant Apply Online 2026

Eligible candidates can submit the online application form through the official portal:

👉 Online Application Link:
https://opportunities.rbi.org.in

RBI Office Attendant Vacancy 2026

A total of 572 vacancies have been announced for the Office Attendant post. Vacancies are released state-wise and category-wise, and candidates can apply for only one state/UT based on language proficiency.

RBI Office Attendant Eligibility Criteria 2026

Educational Qualification

  • Must have passed Class 10 (Matriculation) from a recognised board.
  • Must be proficient in the local language of the state/UT applied for.
  • Graduates and candidates with higher qualifications are not eligible.

Age Limit (as on 01 January 2026)

  • Minimum Age: 18 years
  • Maximum Age: 25 years

Age Relaxation

  • SC / ST: 5 years
  • OBC: 3 years
  • PwBD / Ex-Servicemen: As per rules

RBI Office Attendant Application Fee 2026

CategoryFee
SC / ST / PwBD / Ex-Servicemen₹50 + GST
General / OBC / EWS₹450 + GST

RBI Office Attendant Selection Process 2026

The selection process includes:

1. Online Written Examination

  • Objective type test
  • Multiple sections
  • Negative marking applicable

2. Language Proficiency Test (LPT)

  • Qualifying in nature
  • Candidate must know the local language

RBI Office Attendant Exam Pattern 2026

SectionQuestionsMarks
Reasoning Ability3030
Numerical Ability3030
General English3030
General Awareness3030
Total120120
  • Exam Duration: 90 minutes

RBI Office Attendant Syllabus 2026

Numerical Ability

  • Percentage
  • Ratio & Proportion
  • Time & Work
  • Simplification
  • Number System

Reasoning Ability

  • Puzzles
  • Seating Arrangement
  • Coding-Decoding
  • Blood Relations

General English

  • Reading Comprehension
  • Grammar
  • Vocabulary

General Awareness

  • Current Affairs
  • Banking Awareness
  • Static GK

RBI Office Attendant Salary 2026

  • Basic Pay: ₹24,250 per month
  • Gross Monthly Salary: Approx. ₹46,000

Additional Benefits

  • Dearness Allowance
  • House Rent Allowance (if applicable)
  • Medical Facilities
  • Leave & Pension Benefits

RBI Office Attendant Job Profile

  • Office assistance work
  • File and document movement
  • Support to clerical staff
  • General office duties

RBI Office Attendant Job Location

Selected candidates may be posted in RBI offices at:
Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Patna, Guwahati, Lucknow, and other RBI regional offices.

Why Apply for RBI Office Attendant Recruitment 2026?

  • Central Government Job after 10th
  • High job security
  • Good salary & allowances
  • Work-life balance
  • Prestigious RBI career

Final Words

The RBI Office Attendant Recruitment 2026 is a valuable opportunity for 10th pass aspirants aiming for a stable and respected government job. Candidates should carefully read the official notification and apply online within the given timeline.

Apply early and start preparing to secure your position in the Reserve Bank of India.

UP Police Constable Recruitment 2026 – 32,679 Vacancies

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The Uttar Pradesh Police Recruitment and Promotion Board (UPPRPB) has officially announced the UP Police Constable Recruitment 2025–26 with a total of 32,679 vacancies for various posts including Civil Police, PAC, Special Security Force, Jail Warder, and Mounted Police. This recruitment drive offers a golden opportunity for candidates to start a promising career in law enforcement.

Key Highlights of UP Police Constable Recruitment 2025

Vacancies

  • Total Vacancies: 32,679 posts
  • Posts Included: Constable (Civil Police – Male & Female), Constable PAC (Male), SSF Constable (Male), Jail Warder (Male & Female), PAC Women Battalion, and Mounted Police
  • Job Location: Uttar Pradesh

Important Dates

  • Notification Release Date: 31 December 2025
  • Online Application Start: 31 December 2025
  • Last Date to Apply Online: 30 January 2026

Salary & Benefits

  • Starting Pay: As per UP Police pay scale for constables
  • Additional Benefits: Government job perks, allowances, pension, and career growth opportunities

Eligibility Criteria

  • Educational Qualification: Minimum 12th pass from a recognized board
  • Age Limit (as on 01/07/2025):
    • Male Candidates: 18 to 22 years
    • Female Candidates: 18 to 25 years
  • Age Relaxation: Applicable as per government rules for SC/ST/OBC categories
  • Physical Standards: Height, chest, and weight requirements as per UP Police norms

Physical Standards & Tests

Physical Measurement Test (PMT)

CategoryHeight (Male)Chest (Male)Height (Female)
Gen/OBC/SC168 cm79–84 cm152 cm
ST160 cm77–82 cm147 cm
  • Chest Expansion: Required minimum expansion as per norms
  • Minimum Weight (Female): 40 kg

Physical Efficiency Test (PET)

  • Male: Run 4.8 km in 25 minutes
  • Female: Run 2.4 km in 14 minutes

Exam Pattern & Syllabus

The UP Police Constable Selection Process includes:

  1. Written Examination – General knowledge, reasoning, numerical ability, and language skills
  2. Physical Standard Test (PST) – Measurement of height, chest, and weight
  3. Physical Efficiency Test (PET) – Endurance running and physical tasks
  4. Document Verification – Educational certificates, identity, and category documents
  5. Medical Examination – Final health check before final selection

Application Fee

  • General / OBC / EWS: ₹500
  • SC / ST: ₹400
  • Fee payable online via net banking, UPI, or debit/credit card

How to Apply Online

  1. Visit the UPPRPB official website
  2. Complete One-Time Registration (OTR)
  3. Fill the online application form for the Constable post
  4. Upload scanned copies of required documents (photo, signature, certificates)
  5. Pay the application fee and submit the form before 30 January 2026
  6. Download and save the confirmation for future reference

Why Join UP Police?

Becoming a UP Police Constable offers:

  • Stable government job with attractive pay and allowances
  • Career growth opportunities and promotions
  • Chance to serve the community and ensure public safety
  • Work in specialized units like PAC, Special Security Force, and Jail Warder

This UP Police Constable Recruitment 2025–26 is an excellent opportunity for eligible candidates to start a secure and promising career in law enforcement.

Official Links:

NABARD Young Professional Programme Recruitment 2025

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The NABARD Young Professional Programme (YPP) 2025 recruitment is currently ongoing, and the official notification has already been released by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Eligible candidates can apply online through the official NABARD website before the closing date.

This recruitment is trending among aspirants searching for NABARD recruitment 2025, latest government jobs, and high-paying government jobs without exam.

NABARD Young Professional Programme 2025 – Recruitment Status

✅ Recruitment Status: ONGOING
✅ Application Mode: Online
✅ Organisation: NABARD (Government of India)

Important Dates – NABARD Young Professional Programme 2025

The important dates are officially announced and applications are already being accepted.

EventDate
Notification Release Date26 December 2025
Online Application Start Date26 December 2025
Last Date to Apply Online12 January 2026
Interview / InteractionTo be notified

📌 Candidates are advised to apply well before 12 January 2026 to avoid last-minute technical issues.

What is NABARD Young Professional Programme?

The NABARD Young Professional Programme is a contract-based government engagement aimed at hiring young and skilled professionals to support NABARD’s work in:

  • Agriculture & rural development
  • Policy research and analysis
  • Project monitoring & evaluation
  • Finance & economics
  • Data science, IT & digital initiatives
  • Climate change & sustainability

This programme offers real-time exposure to national-level development projects under a premier central government institution.

NABARD Young Professional Recruitment 2025 – Overview

ParticularsDetails
Post NameYoung Professional
Job TypeContract Government Job
Engagement Period1 Year (extendable up to 3 years)
Monthly Salary₹70,000 (consolidated)
Selection ProcessShortlisting + Interview
Work LocationNABARD offices across India

NABARD Young Professional Eligibility Criteria

Age Limit

  • Minimum Age: 21 Years
  • Maximum Age: 30 Years
    (Age relaxation applicable as per rules)

Educational Qualification

Candidates must possess a Bachelor’s or Master’s degree in relevant disciplines such as:

  • Economics
  • Agriculture / Agribusiness
  • Rural Development
  • Finance / Banking
  • Data Science / Statistics
  • IT / Computer Science
  • Management
  • Environmental Studies / Climate Science

Relevant professional experience may be preferred for certain posts.

NABARD Young Professional Salary & Benefits

  • Salary: ₹70,000 per month (consolidated)
  • Paid leave as per NABARD norms
  • Official work facilities
  • Certificate of experience on successful completion

⚠️ This is a contractual position, not a permanent government job.

NABARD Young Professional Selection Process

The recruitment is conducted without a written examination.

Selection Stages:

  1. Screening of Applications
  2. Interview / Presentation
  3. Final Selection

This makes it one of the most searched government jobs without exam 2025.

How to Apply for NABARD Young Professional Programme 2025 (Online)

Follow these steps to apply:

  1. Visit the official NABARD website
    👉 https://www.nabard.org
  2. Go to Careers → Recruitment
  3. Click on “Young Professional Programme 2025”
  4. Register and fill the online application form
  5. Upload required documents
  6. Submit the application before the deadline

📌 Only online applications are accepted.

Important Links – NABARD YPP 2025

🔹 Online Application Link:
👉 https://www.nabard.org/career.aspx

🔹 Official Notification PDF:
👉 https://www.nabard.org/auth/writereaddata/Career/YP_Notification_2025.pdf

(Always download and read the official notification before applying.)

Who Should Apply for NABARD Young Professional Programme?

This ongoing recruitment is ideal for:

  • Graduates seeking latest NABARD jobs
  • Postgraduates in economics, agriculture, finance & data science
  • Candidates preparing for UPSC, RBI, NABARD Grade A
  • Aspirants looking for central government contract jobs
  • Professionals interested in policy & rural development careers

Final Words

With the NABARD Young Professional Programme 2025 recruitment already ongoing, this is the perfect opportunity to secure a high-paying government contract job with national-level exposure. The absence of a written exam and the attractive salary make it one of the best current government job opportunities.

👉 Apply online before 12 January 2026.

IBPS, SBI & RRB Recruitment 2026: Expected 35,000+ Banking Vacancies in India

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The Indian banking sector is set for massive recruitment in 2026, creating a golden opportunity for aspirants preparing for Bank Clerk, PO, SO, and RRB exams. With retirements, branch expansion, and digital banking growth, Public Sector Banks (PSBs), SBI, and IBPS are expected to release tens of thousands of vacancies in 2026.

If you are planning a career in banking, this guide covers expected vacancies, exam-wise recruitment, timelines, and preparation tips — all in one place.

📌 Why Banking Jobs Will Boom in 2026

Several key factors are driving large-scale hiring in 2026:

  • 🔹 Large number of retirements in PSBs
  • 🔹 Expansion of rural & digital banking services
  • 🔹 New government focus on financial inclusion
  • 🔹 Increased workload due to UPI, credit growth & MSME lending

👉 Result: One of the biggest banking recruitment cycles in recent years

🏦 Expected Banking Vacancies in 2026 (Overview)

Exam / BankExpected Vacancies (Approx.)
IBPS Clerk13,000 – 15,000
SBI Clerk6,000 – 8,000
IBPS PO3,000 – 4,000
SBI PO2,000 – 2,500
IBPS RRB (Clerk & Officer)8,000 – 10,000
SBI SO / CBO / LBO3,000 – 4,000
RBI (Assistant / Grade B)300 – 600
Total Expected35,000+ Vacancies

⚠️ Note: These are projected figures based on industry trends, union reports, and previous recruitment cycles.

🏦 IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2026 (Biggest Opportunity)

  • Expected vacancies: 13,000+
  • Eligibility: Graduation in any discipline
  • Age limit: 20–28 years
  • Exam level: Moderate
  • Job role: Customer Service Associate (CSA)

📅 Expected Notification: June–July 2026
📘 Best for: Fresh graduates and beginners

🏦 SBI Recruitment 2026 (Clerk, PO & SO)

SBI Clerk 2026

  • Expected vacancies: 6,000–8,000
  • Job security + best salary among clerks
  • High competition but high reward

SBI PO 2026

  • Expected vacancies: 2,000+
  • Fast promotions & leadership roles
  • One of the most prestigious bank jobs

📅 Expected Notification: Early–Mid 2026

🏦 IBPS PO Recruitment 2026

  • Expected vacancies: 3,000–4,000
  • Participating banks: PNB, BOB, Canara, Union Bank, etc.
  • Eligibility: Graduation
  • Career growth: Branch Manager → Senior Management

📅 Expected Notification: August–September 2026

🌾 IBPS RRB Vacancies 2026 (Rural Banking)

  • Expected vacancies: 8,000–10,000
  • Posts: Office Assistant & Officer Scale I, II, III
  • Posting: Rural & semi-urban areas
  • Competition: Slightly lower than IBPS PO/Clerk

📅 Expected Notification: June 2026

🏛️ RBI Vacancies 2026 (Premium Banking Jobs)

  • Posts: RBI Assistant, Grade B Officer, Specialist roles
  • Vacancies: Limited but highly prestigious
  • Salary: Highest among banking exams
  • Exam level: Tough but rewarding

📅 Expected Notification: 2026 (Exact dates awaited)

🗓️ Expected Banking Exam Calendar 2026

MonthLikely Events
Jan – MarSBI SO / RBI notifications
Apr – JunSBI Clerk, IBPS RRB
Jul – SepIBPS Clerk & PO
Oct – DecExams & results

🎯 Who Should Start Preparing Now?

You should start preparation immediately if you are:

  • ✔️ A graduate (any stream)
  • ✔️ Final-year college student
  • ✔️ Preparing for government jobs
  • ✔️ Looking for stable & respected career options

⏳ Early preparation = higher chance of selection

📘 Preparation Tips for Banking Exams 2026

  • 📖 Focus on Quant, Reasoning, English & GA
  • 🧠 Practice mock tests regularly
  • 📰 Read daily banking & current affairs
  • ⏰ Maintain consistency (2–4 hours daily)

🔔 How to Stay Updated

  • Follow official websites: IBPS, SBI, RBI
  • Check Employment News weekly
  • Enable notifications on trusted exam portals
  • Bookmark this page for updates 😉

✨ Final Words

👉 2026 will be a landmark year for banking aspirants in India.
With 35,000+ expected vacancies, consistent preparation can easily land you a secure, well-paying bank job.

Start now, stay disciplined, and success will follow.

SSC GD Constable Recruitment 2026: 25,487 Vacancies, Apply Now

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The SSC GD Constable Recruitment 2026 process has officially begun, bringing a major opportunity for 10th-pass candidates to join India’s leading paramilitary forces. The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has released a massive 25,487 vacancies for GD Constable and Rifleman posts in forces such as BSF, CISF, CRPF, ITBP, SSB, Assam Rifles, SSF, and NCB.

This detailed article covers important dates, eligibility, exam pattern, age limit, physical requirements, selection process, and salary for SSC GD 2026. It is optimized with keywords to help rank higher in search engines.

📅 SSC GD Constable Recruitment 2026 – Important Dates

The online application process has already started. Here are the complete dates:

EventDate
SSC GD 2026 Notification Release1 December 2025
Start of Online Application1 December 2025
Last Date to Apply Online31 December 2025
Last Date to Pay Exam Fee1 January 2026
Correction Window8–10 January 2026
SSC GD Exam Date (CBT)February – April 2026
PET/PST ScheduleApril – May 2026
Medical ExamJune – July 2026
Final ResultSeptember 2026

These dates are crucial for candidates preparing for the SSC GD Constable 2026 exam.

⭐ SSC GD Constable 2026 – Recruitment Overview

  • Name of Exam: SSC GD Constable Recruitment 2026
  • Conducting Body: Staff Selection Commission (SSC)
  • Total Vacancies: 25,487
  • Posts: Constable (General Duty), Rifleman
  • Qualification: 10th Pass
  • Selection Stages:
    • Computer-Based Test (CBT)
    • Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
    • Physical Standard Test (PST)
    • Medical Examination
    • Document Verification

This recruitment aims to fill GD positions in India’s leading CAPFs (Central Armed Police Forces).

🎓 SSC GD Constable Eligibility 2026

1. Educational Qualification

Candidates must have passed Matriculation / 10th Standard from a recognized board.

2. Age Limit (as on 1 January 2026)

  • Minimum Age: 18 years
  • Maximum Age: 23 years

Candidates must be born between:
2 January 2003 to 1 January 2008

Age Relaxation:

  • OBC: +3 years
  • SC/ST: +5 years
  • Ex-Servicemen: +3 years after service
  • Other relaxations as per government rules

3. Nationality

Candidate must be an Indian Citizen.

💪 SSC GD Constable Physical Standards 2026

Height:

  • Male: 170 cm
  • Female: 157 cm

Chest (Male Only):

  • Unexpanded: 80 cm
  • Expanded: 85 cm

Weight:

According to height and age.

🏃‍♂️ SSC GD Constable PET Requirements

For Male Candidates:

  • 5 km run in 24 minutes

For Female Candidates:

  • 1.6 km run in 8.5 minutes

PET is qualifying in nature.

📝 SSC GD Constable Exam Pattern 2026 (CBT)

SubjectQuestionsMarks
General Intelligence & Reasoning2040
General Knowledge & Awareness2040
Elementary Mathematics2040
English / Hindi2040
Total80160
  • Duration: 60 minutes
  • Negative Marking: 0.25 mark per wrong answer

The CBT is the first and most important stage of the SSC GD 2026 exam.

🧾 SSC GD Constable Selection Process 2026

  1. Computer-Based Examination (CBT)
  2. Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
  3. Physical Standard Test (PST)
  4. Medical Examination
  5. Document Verification

Only candidates who qualify all stages will be appointed to CAPF, NCB, SSF, or Assam Rifles.

💰 SSC GD Constable Salary 2026

The salary for SSC GD Constable falls under Pay Level-3:

  • Basic Pay: ₹21,700 – ₹69,100
  • Allowances include:
    • DA
    • HRA
    • Transport Allowance
    • Risk/Hardship Allowance
    • Ration Allowance
    • Medical Facilities
    • Pension & retirement benefits

This makes SSC GD Constable one of the most attractive jobs for 10th-pass candidates.

🏁 Final Thoughts

The SSC GD Constable Recruitment 2026 is one of the biggest government job opportunities for India’s youth, especially those looking for defence jobs, 10th pass jobs, and central government vacancies. With more than 25,487 vacancies, this is the perfect chance to secure a stable and respected position in India’s paramilitary forces.

Candidates should apply before the 31 December 2025 deadline, begin their written exam preparation, and maintain physical fitness for PET and PST.

Most Expected SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 Question Paper

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Get ready for the SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 exam with the most expected question paper! Practice this complete set of MCQs covering all sections — General Intelligence, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension — along with answers.

📝 Introduction

The SSC CGL Tier 1 exam is one of the most awaited government exams of the year. To help you prepare effectively, we’ve compiled a most expected question paper for 2025 based on exam patterns and previous years’ trends.

Practice these MCQs to boost your confidence and improve your speed and accuracy.

📋 Exam Pattern Recap

  • Total Questions: 100
  • Sections:
    1. General Intelligence & Reasoning – 25 Qs
    2. General Awareness – 25 Qs
    3. Quantitative Aptitude – 25 Qs
    4. English Comprehension – 25 Qs
  • Total Marks: 200
  • Duration: 60 minutes
  • Negative Marking: 0.5 marks per wrong answer

1️⃣ General Intelligence & Reasoning (25 MCQs)

  1. Find the odd one out: 2, 3, 5, 9, 11
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 5
    d) 9
    Answer: d) 9
  2. Complete the series: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    a) 50
    b) 60
    c) 80
    d) 100
    Answer: c) 80
  3. If A is brother of B and B is sister of C, what is C to A?
    a) Brother
    b) Sister
    c) Could be either
    d) Father
    Answer: c) Could be either
  4. In a code, TABLE = UBCME. How is CHAIR written?
    a) DIBJS
    b) DIJBS
    c) DIBSJ
    d) DIBJS
    Answer: a) DIBJS
  5. Next number in 3, 9, 27, 81, ?
    a) 108
    b) 162
    c) 243
    d) 324
    Answer: c) 243
  6. Find the missing number: 2, 4, 12, 48, ?
    a) 192
    b) 240
    c) 180
    d) 256
    Answer: a) 192
  7. Which word does NOT belong: Apple, Banana, Carrot, Mango
    a) Apple
    b) Banana
    c) Carrot
    d) Mango
    Answer: c) Carrot
  8. What comes next: Z, X, V, T, ?
    a) R
    b) S
    c) Q
    d) P
    Answer: a) R
  9. If ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘XZG’, how is ‘DOG’ coded?
    a) WLT
    b) WKT
    c) WJU
    d) VLT
    Answer: a) WLT
  10. Which number replaces the question mark? 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
    a) 70
    b) 112
    c) 84
    d) 108
    Answer: b) 112
  11. Which shape will complete the pattern? (Visual question – omitted here)
    a) Square
    b) Triangle
    c) Circle
    d) Rectangle
    Answer: b) Triangle
  12. Find the code for ‘BRIDGE’ if B=2, R=18, I=9, D=4, G=7, E=5, and code is sum of letters.
    a) 45
    b) 43
    c) 40
    d) 50
    Answer: a) 45
  13. A is twice as old as B. 5 years ago, A was three times as old as B. Find B’s present age.
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: a) 10
  14. Which letter comes next? A, C, F, J, ?
    a) O
    b) N
    c) M
    d) P
    Answer: a) O
  15. Pointing to a man, a woman says, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
    a) Mother
    b) Aunt
    c) Grandmother
    d) Sister
    Answer: a) Mother
  16. Rearrange the letters in ‘EVALUATE’ to form a meaningful word.
    a) VALUE
    b) ELEVATE
    c) VAULT
    d) ALUATE
    Answer: b) ELEVATE
  17. Which number comes next: 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?
    a) 10
    b) 11
    c) 12
    d) 13
    Answer: d) 13
  18. In a certain code, ‘PENCIL’ is ‘QFODJM’. What is ‘RULER’?
    a) SVKFS
    b) SVLFS
    c) SVKER
    d) SVKFT
    Answer: a) SVKFS
  19. How many triangles are there in the figure? (Visual question – omitted)
    a) 10
    b) 12
    c) 14
    d) 16
    Answer: b) 12
  20. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, which of these will be the mirror image of the figure? (Visual question – omitted)
    a) Option 1
    b) Option 2
    c) Option 3
    d) Option 4
    Answer: a) Option 1
  21. Find the odd number out: 21, 33, 46, 57, 69
    a) 21
    b) 33
    c) 46
    d) 69
    Answer: c) 46
  22. The code for ‘FARM’ is ‘IDUP’. What is the code for ‘CROP’?
    a) FURS
    b) FUSQ
    c) FUSP
    d) FUSO
    Answer: a) FURS
  23. A clock shows 3:15. What is the angle between hour and minute hands?
    a) 7.5°
    b) 0°
    c) 15°
    d) 30°
    Answer: a) 7.5°
  24. Find the next number: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ?
    a) 40
    b) 45
    c) 49
    d) 64
    Answer: c) 49
  25. If 3x + 4 = 19, then x = ?
    a) 4
    b) 5
    c) 6
    d) 7
    Answer: b) 5

2️⃣ General Awareness (25 MCQs)

  1. Who is the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
    a) Mahatma Gandhi
    b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    c) Jawaharlal Nehru
    d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Currency of Japan?
    a) Yen
    b) Yuan
    c) Dollar
    d) Won
    Answer: a) Yen
  3. Most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Carbon Dioxide
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Hydrogen
    Answer: c) Nitrogen
  4. Author of ‘Discovery of India’?
    a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    b) Rabindranath Tagore
    c) Subhash Chandra Bose
    d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  5. Who built the Taj Mahal?
    a) Akbar
    b) Shah Jahan
    c) Aurangzeb
    d) Jahangir
    Answer: b) Shah Jahan
  6. The Capital of Australia is?
    a) Sydney
    b) Melbourne
    c) Canberra
    d) Brisbane
    Answer: c) Canberra
  7. The longest river in India?
    a) Ganges
    b) Brahmaputra
    c) Godavari
    d) Yamuna
    Answer: a) Ganges
  8. The chemical symbol for Gold?
    a) Au
    b) Ag
    c) Gd
    d) Go
    Answer: a) Au
  9. National animal of India?
    a) Lion
    b) Tiger
    c) Elephant
    d) Peacock
    Answer: b) Tiger
  10. The first Prime Minister of India?
    a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    b) Jawaharlal Nehru
    c) Indira Gandhi
    d) Rajendra Prasad
    Answer: b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  11. What is the SI unit of Force?
    a) Newton
    b) Pascal
    c) Joule
    d) Watt
    Answer: a) Newton
  12. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
    a) Venus
    b) Mars
    c) Jupiter
    d) Saturn
    Answer: b) Mars
  13. The International Day of Yoga is celebrated on?
    a) 21 June
    b) 15 August
    c) 1 January
    d) 2 October
    Answer: a) 21 June
  14. Who discovered Penicillin?
    a) Marie Curie
    b) Alexander Fleming
    c) Louis Pasteur
    d) Isaac Newton
    Answer: b) Alexander Fleming
  15. The largest continent?
    a) Africa
    b) Asia
    c) Europe
    d) Antarctica
    Answer: b) Asia
  16. The currency of UK?
    a) Euro
    b) Dollar
    c) Pound Sterling
    d) Franc
    Answer: c) Pound Sterling
  17. The Nobel Prize is awarded in how many categories?
    a) 5
    b) 6
    c) 7
    d) 8
    Answer: b) 6
  18. Where is the headquarters of WHO?
    a) New York
    b) Geneva
    c) Paris
    d) London
    Answer: b) Geneva
  19. The founder of Sikhism?
    a) Guru Nanak
    b) Guru Gobind Singh
    c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
    d) Guru Arjan Dev
    Answer: a) Guru Nanak
  20. Which country is known as the Land of the Rising Sun?
    a) China
    b) Japan
    c) South Korea
    d) Thailand
    Answer: b) Japan
  21. Which of these is a greenhouse gas?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Nitrogen
    c) Carbon Dioxide
    d) Helium
    Answer: c) Carbon Dioxide
  22. What is the chemical formula for water?
    a) H2O
    b) CO2
    c) NaCl
    d) O2
    Answer: a) H2O
  23. The Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to which Indian in 1913?
    a) Rabindranath Tagore
    b) Sarojini Naidu
    c) C.V. Raman
    d) Amartya Sen
    Answer: a) Rabindranath Tagore
  24. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
    a) Indira Gandhi
    b) Sarojini Naidu
    c) Pratibha Patil
    d) Sushma Swaraj
    Answer: a) Indira Gandhi
  25. The chemical element with atomic number 1 is?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Hydrogen
    c) Helium
    d) Nitrogen
    Answer: b) Hydrogen

3️⃣ Quantitative Aptitude (25 MCQs)

  1. 15% of 200 = ?
    a) 25
    b) 30
    c) 35
    d) 40
    Answer: b) 30
  2. 5 + 3 × 6 ÷ 2 – 4 = ?
    a) 10
    b) 12
    c) 13
    d) 14
    Answer: c) 13
  3. Speed of train that covers 120 km in 2 hours?
    a) 50 km/h
    b) 60 km/h
    c) 55 km/h
    d) 70 km/h
    Answer: b) 60 km/h
  4. Cost price of 10 pens = selling price of 8 pens. Profit %?
    a) 15%
    b) 20%
    c) 25%
    d) 30%
    Answer: c) 25%
  5. Average of five numbers is 20. If one number excluded, average is 18. Excluded number?
    a) 25
    b) 26
    c) 28
    d) 30
    Answer: d) 30
  6. If x + y = 10 and x – y = 2, find x.
    a) 4
    b) 6
    c) 8
    d) 10
    Answer: b) 6
  7. What is 20% of 150?
    a) 25
    b) 30
    c) 35
    d) 40
    Answer: b) 30
  8. What is the square root of 256?
    a) 14
    b) 15
    c) 16
    d) 17
    Answer: c) 16
  9. The perimeter of a square is 64 cm. Find its area.
    a) 256 sq.cm
    b) 512 sq.cm
    c) 128 sq.cm
    d) 64 sq.cm
    Answer: a) 256 sq.cm
  10. If 3 workers complete a job in 8 days, how many days will 6 workers take?
    a) 4 days
    b) 6 days
    c) 3 days
    d) 5 days
    Answer: a) 4 days
  11. What is 25% of 160?
    a) 30
    b) 40
    c) 45
    d) 50
    Answer: b) 40
  12. If a man runs 60 meters in 15 seconds, what is his speed in m/s?
    a) 3
    b) 4
    c) 5
    d) 6
    Answer: c) 4
  13. What is 0.5 × 0.2?
    a) 0.1
    b) 0.01
    c) 1
    d) 10
    Answer: a) 0.1
  14. Simplify: 12 ÷ (2 × 2) + 3
    a) 6
    b) 5
    c) 4
    d) 3
    Answer: b) 5
  15. Find the next number in 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
    a) 18
    b) 20
    c) 32
    d) 24
    Answer: c) 32
  16. 45% of 200 = ?
    a) 80
    b) 85
    c) 90
    d) 95
    Answer: c) 90
  17. A shopkeeper gives 10% discount on an article priced at ₹500. What is the selling price?
    a) ₹400
    b) ₹450
    c) ₹475
    d) ₹500
    Answer: b) ₹450
  18. If the ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 56, find the larger number.
    a) 24
    b) 28
    c) 32
    d) 36
    Answer: c) 32
  19. What is 15% of 300?
    a) 45
    b) 50
    c) 55
    d) 60
    Answer: a) 45
  20. 10² + 12² = ?
    a) 244
    b) 244
    c) 244
    d) 244
    Answer: 244
  21. What is 1/4 of 80?
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: c) 20
  22. If 5x = 20, then x = ?
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 4
    d) 5
    Answer: c) 4
  23. What is the value of π (pi) approximately?
    a) 3.14
    b) 3.15
    c) 3.16
    d) 3.17
    Answer: a) 3.14
  24. Find the simple interest on ₹1000 for 2 years at 5% p.a.
    a) ₹50
    b) ₹100
    c) ₹150
    d) ₹200
    Answer: b) ₹100
  25. 100 ÷ 4 × 2 = ?
    a) 25
    b) 40
    c) 50
    d) 75
    Answer: c) 50

4️⃣ English Comprehension (25 MCQs)

  1. Choose the correctly spelled word:
    a) Recieve
    b) Receive
    c) Recive
    d) Receeve
    Answer: b) Receive
  2. Synonym of ‘Happy’:
    a) Sad
    b) Joyful
    c) Angry
    d) Lazy
    Answer: b) Joyful
  3. Fill in the blank: She _____ to the market yesterday.
    a) goes
    b) went
    c) gone
    d) going
    Answer: b) went
  4. Identify the error: He don’t like ice cream.
    a) He
    b) don’t
    c) like
    d) ice cream
    Answer: b) don’t (should be doesn’t)
  5. One-word substitution for ‘a person who writes poems’:
    a) Novelist
    b) Poet
    c) Dramatist
    d) Author
    Answer: b) Poet
  6. Choose the correct article: She has ____ umbrella.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
    Answer: b) an
  7. Find the antonym of ‘Brave’:
    a) Courageous
    b) Fearful
    c) Strong
    d) Bold
    Answer: b) Fearful
  8. Select the correct sentence:
    a) He go to school every day.
    b) He goes to school every day.
    c) He going to school every day.
    d) He gone to school every day.
    Answer: b) He goes to school every day.
  9. Fill in the blank: They _____ playing cricket now.
    a) is
    b) are
    c) am
    d) be
    Answer: b) are
  10. Choose the correct preposition: He is good _____ math.
    a) on
    b) in
    c) at
    d) by
    Answer: c) at
  11. Replace the underlined word with a suitable synonym: She is very angry.
    a) Happy
    b) Furious
    c) Calm
    d) Sad
    Answer: b) Furious
  12. Select the correct plural form:
    a) Childs
    b) Childes
    c) Children
    d) Child
    Answer: c) Children
  13. Choose the correct option: I have _____ apple.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
    Answer: b) an
  14. Find the error: She can sings well.
    a) She
    b) can
    c) sings
    d) well
    Answer: c) sings (should be sing)
  15. Find the synonym of ‘Beautiful’:
    a) Ugly
    b) Pretty
    c) Plain
    d) Dark
    Answer: b) Pretty
  16. Which sentence is correct?
    a) He is taller than me.
    b) He is tallest than me.
    c) He taller than me.
    d) He tall than me.
    Answer: a) He is taller than me.
  17. Fill in the blank: This is my _____ book.
    a) friend
    b) friends
    c) friend’s
    d) friends’
    Answer: c) friend’s
  18. Choose the correct tense: They _____ finished their homework.
    a) has
    b) have
    c) had
    d) having
    Answer: b) have
  19. Find the antonym of ‘Hard’:
    a) Difficult
    b) Soft
    c) Tough
    d) Rigid
    Answer: b) Soft
  20. Select the correct form: I _____ to the gym every day.
    a) go
    b) goes
    c) going
    d) gone
    Answer: a) go
  21. Fill in the blank: She _____ a doctor.
    a) am
    b) is
    c) are
    d) be
    Answer: b) is
  22. Identify the part of speech of the word ‘quickly’:
    a) Noun
    b) Verb
    c) Adjective
    d) Adverb
    Answer: d) Adverb
  23. Choose the correct option: He has been _____ since morning.
    a) working
    b) work
    c) worked
    d) works
    Answer: a) working
  24. Replace the underlined word with a synonym: He is a fast runner.
    a) Slow
    b) Quick
    c) Late
    d) Weak
    Answer: b) Quick
  25. Find the error: They was playing football.
    a) They
    b) was
    c) playing
    d) football
    Answer: b) was (should be were)

✅ Final Tips for SSC CGL Tier 1 2025

  • Practice Daily: Regular practice helps improve speed and accuracy.
  • Focus on Weak Areas: Identify topics where you lose marks and work on them.
  • Mock Tests: Take full-length mock exams to get exam-like experience.
  • Time Management: Allocate time wisely to each section during the exam.
  • Stay Updated: For General Awareness, keep yourself updated on current affairs daily.

🔖 Conclusion

This most expected SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 question paper with answers will help you get a realistic idea of what to expect in the exam. Consistent practice of these questions will definitely boost your confidence and improve your chances of cracking the SSC CGL exam.

Best of luck for your preparation!

IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2025: Notification, Vacancies, Eligibility, and Application Process

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#BreakingJobNews

If you’re an aspiring banking professional, IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2025 is your golden opportunity. The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released the much-awaited notification for Clerk posts under CRP Clerk-XV, offering thousands of vacancies across India’s leading public sector banks.

In this comprehensive guide, we’ll cover all essential details including eligibility criteria, important dates, application process, exam pattern, and preparation tips. Whether you’re a first-time applicant or a seasoned candidate, this blog will help you stay ahead in your IBPS Clerk 2025 journey.

🔍 Overview of IBPS Clerk 2025

  • Organization: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
  • Post Name: Clerk (CRP Clerk-XV)
  • Vacancies: 10,000+ (tentative)
  • Participating Banks: 11 Public Sector Banks
  • Job Location: Pan India
  • Application Mode: Online
  • Selection Process: Preliminary & Main Exams
  • Official Website: www.ibps.in

📅 IBPS Clerk 2025: Important Dates

EventDate
Notification ReleaseAugust 1, 2025
Online Registration StartsAugust 1, 2025
Last Date to ApplyAugust 28, 2025
Preliminary Exam DatesSeptember 21 & 22, 2025
Mains Exam DateOctober 19, 2025
Provisional AllotmentApril 2026

✅ IBPS Clerk 2025 Eligibility Criteria

1. Nationality

  • Must be a citizen of India.
  • Subjects of Nepal, Bhutan, or Tibetan refugees may also be eligible under certain conditions.

2. Age Limit (as on 01.08.2025)

  • Minimum: 20 years
  • Maximum: 28 years
  • Age relaxation is applicable for SC/ST/OBC/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen as per government norms.

3. Educational Qualification

  • A Bachelor’s degree in any discipline from a recognized university.
  • Must possess working knowledge of computer systems.
  • Proficiency in the official language of the State/UT for which you are applying.

🖊️ IBPS Clerk 2025 Application Process

Step-by-Step Guide:

  1. Visit ibps.in.
  2. Click on “CRP Clerical” → “Apply Online”.
  3. Register using a valid email ID and mobile number.
  4. Fill in personal, academic, and communication details.
  5. Upload scanned photograph, signature, and documents.
  6. Pay the application fee online.

Application Fee:

  • ₹850 for General/OBC
  • ₹175 for SC/ST/PwBD candidates

🧠 IBPS Clerk Exam Pattern 2025

Preliminary Exam (Objective Type)

SubjectQuestionsMarksTime
English Language303020 min
Numerical Ability353520 min
Reasoning Ability353520 min
Total10010060 min

Main Exam

SubjectQuestionsMarksTime
General/Financial Awareness505035 min
General English404035 min
Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude506045 min
Quantitative Aptitude505045 min
Total190200160 min

Note: There is negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in both stages.

📚 Preparation Tips for IBPS Clerk 2025

  1. Understand the syllabus and exam pattern thoroughly.
  2. Practice with mock tests and previous year papers.
  3. Focus on speed and accuracy.
  4. Read daily newspapers to improve English and Current Affairs.
  5. Use reputable platforms for sectional practice (Quant, Reasoning, English, GA).

🏦 Why Choose IBPS Clerk as a Career?

  • Opportunity to work with top public sector banks.
  • Stable career with promotions and departmental exams.
  • Good work-life balance and job security.
  • Attractive salary with benefits like DA, HRA, medical, and pension schemes.

📌 Final Thoughts

The IBPS Clerk 2025 recruitment is an excellent opportunity for graduates aiming to start a government job in the banking sector. With over 10,000 vacancies and a well-structured selection process, now is the time to begin your preparation.

Don’t miss the application deadline — August 28, 2025.

Stay updated with exam-related news, syllabus updates, admit card releases, and result announcements by bookmarking this page or subscribing to our newsletter.

🔗 Quick Links

#IBPSClerkNotification

#IBPSOnlineForm

#IBPSPrelims2025

#IBPSMains2025

#BankingCareer

#JobSearchIndia

#GraduateJobs

#BankExamPreparation

#ExamStrategy2025

#StudyWithMe

Most Expected MCQs for RRB NTPC Undergraduate Level Exam 2025: Practice Question Bank

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RRBNTPC2025 #RRBNTPCExam #GovernmentJobs #ExamPreparation #MCQsPractice #RRBNTPCQuestions #CompetitiveExams #RailwayJobs #StudyMaterial #RRBNTPCStudy

Are you preparing for the RRB NTPC Undergraduate Level Exam 2025? To help you ace the exam, we’ve compiled a comprehensive list of 100 most expected multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering key topics like General Awareness, Mathematics, General Intelligence & Reasoning, English, and Current Affairs.

This question bank is designed to boost your confidence and improve your accuracy in the exam. Practice these questions regularly to get familiar with the exam pattern and increase your chances of success!

General Awareness Questions

  1. Who is the current Prime Minister of India in 2025?
    a) Narendra Modi
    b) Manmohan Singh
    c) Rahul Gandhi
    d) Amit Shah
    Answer: a) Narendra Modi
  2. What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh?
    a) Itanagar
    b) Dispur
    c) Guwahati
    d) Shillong
    Answer: a) Itanagar
  3. The longest river in India is?
    a) Ganga
    b) Brahmaputra
    c) Godavari
    d) Yamuna
    Answer: a) Ganga
  1. Who wrote the Indian National Anthem?
    a) Rabindranath Tagore
    b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
    c) Sarojini Naidu
    d) Kavi Pradeep
    Answer: a) Rabindranath Tagore
  2. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
    a) Venus
    b) Mars
    c) Jupiter
    d) Saturn
    Answer: b) Mars

Mathematics

  1. What is 15% of 200?
    a) 20
    b) 25
    c) 30
    d) 35
    Answer: c) 30
  2. If the ratio of two numbers is 5:6 and their HCF is 12, what is their LCM?
    a) 60
    b) 144
    c) 240
    d) 360
    Answer: c) 240
  3. Simplify: (25 × 16) ÷ (20 × 4)
    a) 5
    b) 10
    c) 25
    d) 50
    Answer: a) 5
  4. What is the square root of 196?
    a) 12
    b) 13
    c) 14
    d) 15
    Answer: c) 14
  5. If 3x – 5 = 16, then x = ?
    a) 5
    b) 7
    c) 8
    d) 21
    Answer: b) 7

General Intelligence & Reasoning

  1. Find the next number in the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
    a) 18
    b) 20
    c) 32
    d) 34
    Answer: c) 32
  2. Which one does not belong to the group?
    Dog, Cat, Lion, Car
    a) Dog
    b) Cat
    c) Lion
    d) Car
    Answer: d) Car
  3. If ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘3120’, what is the code for ‘BAT’?
    a) 2120
    b) 2130
    c) 3120
    d) 1230
    Answer: a) 2120
  4. Find the odd one out: 7, 14, 21, 29, 35
    a) 7
    b) 21
    c) 29
    d) 35
    Answer: c) 29
  5. In a certain code, ‘TRAIN’ is written as ‘UISJO’. How is ‘PLANE’ written in that code?
    a) QMBOF
    b) QLBOF
    c) QLBMF
    d) QLBOE
    Answer: a) QMBOF

English Language

  1. Choose the correct antonym of ‘Scarce’:
    a) Rare
    b) Abundant
    c) Little
    d) Few
    Answer: b) Abundant
  2. Fill in the blank: She ____ to the market every day.
    a) go
    b) goes
    c) going
    d) gone
    Answer: b) goes
  3. Select the correctly spelled word:
    a) Recieve
    b) Receive
    c) Recive
    d) Reciev
    Answer: b) Receive
  4. Find the synonym of ‘Happy’:
    a) Sad
    b) Angry
    c) Joyful
    d) Tired
    Answer: c) Joyful
  5. Choose the correct sentence:
    a) He don’t like apples.
    b) He doesn’t like apples.
    c) He doesn’t likes apples.
    d) He don’t likes apples.
    Answer: b) He doesn’t like apples.

Current Affairs

  1. Which country hosted the G20 summit in 2025?
    a) India
    b) Brazil
    c) Italy
    d) Japan
    Answer: a) India
  2. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2024?
    a) Malala Yousafzai
    b) Abiy Ahmed
    c) Svetlana Tikhanovskaya
    d) Narges Mohammadi
    Answer: d) Narges Mohammadi
  3. What is the theme of World Environment Day 2025?
    a) Beat Air Pollution
    b) Ecosystem Restoration
    c) Plastic Pollution
    d) Climate Action
    Answer: b) Ecosystem Restoration
  4. Which Indian city is known as the ‘Silicon Valley of India’?
    a) Hyderabad
    b) Chennai
    c) Bangalore
    d) Pune
    Answer: c) Bangalore
  5. Who is the current RBI Governor (2025)?
    a) Shaktikanta Das
    b) Urjit Patel
    c) Raghuram Rajan
    d) Duvvuri Subbarao
    Answer: a) Shaktikanta Das

More Mathematics and Reasoning

  1. If a train travels 60 km in 50 minutes, what is its speed in km/h?
    a) 72
    b) 70
    c) 75
    d) 80
    Answer: a) 72
  2. If 5 workers can do a job in 20 days, how many days will 10 workers take?
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: a) 10
  3. Find the missing number: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    a) 70
    b) 80
    c) 60
    d) 100
    Answer: b) 80
  4. If ‘P’ means ‘+’, ‘Q’ means ‘-’, and ‘R’ means ‘×’, then what is 6 P 3 Q 2 R 2?
    a) 14
    b) 16
    c) 10
    d) 12
    Answer: a) 14
    (Calculation: 6 + 3 – 2 × 2 = 6 + 3 – 4 = 5)
  5. Find the next number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
    a) 20
    b) 25
    c) 30
    d) 36
    Answer: b) 25

General Awareness (31-40)

  1. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in?
    a) Geneva
    b) New York
    c) Paris
    d) London
    Answer: b) New York
  2. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
    a) Sonia Gandhi
    b) Indira Gandhi
    c) Sarojini Naidu
    d) Pratibha Patil
    Answer: b) Indira Gandhi
  3. Which Indian state has the largest area?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Rajasthan
    c) Madhya Pradesh
    d) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: b) Rajasthan
  4. The Indian currency is known as?
    a) Dollar
    b) Pound
    c) Rupee
    d) Euro
    Answer: c) Rupee
  5. Which is the smallest planet in our solar system?
    a) Mercury
    b) Venus
    c) Mars
    d) Pluto
    Answer: a) Mercury
  6. The Reserve Bank of India was established in?
    a) 1920
    b) 1935
    c) 1947
    d) 1950
    Answer: b) 1935
  7. Who discovered gravity?
    a) Albert Einstein
    b) Isaac Newton
    c) Galileo Galilei
    d) Nikola Tesla
    Answer: b) Isaac Newton
  8. The Taj Mahal was built by which Mughal Emperor?
    a) Akbar
    b) Jahangir
    c) Shah Jahan
    d) Aurangzeb
    Answer: c) Shah Jahan
  9. What is the chemical symbol for Gold?
    a) Au
    b) Ag
    c) Gd
    d) Go
    Answer: a) Au
  10. Which is the largest continent on Earth?
    a) Africa
    b) Asia
    c) Europe
    d) North America
    Answer: b) Asia

Mathematics (41-50)

  1. What is the LCM of 6 and 8?
    a) 12
    b) 18
    c) 24
    d) 48
    Answer: c) 24
  2. If the price of an article is increased by 10%, what is the new price of an article originally priced ₹200?
    a) ₹210
    b) ₹220
    c) ₹230
    d) ₹240
    Answer: b) ₹220
  3. Solve: 7 + 3 × (10 ÷ 2) = ?
    a) 22
    b) 23
    c) 24
    d) 25
    Answer: a) 22
  4. The value of 5³ is:
    a) 15
    b) 25
    c) 100
    d) 125
    Answer: d) 125
  5. What is the area of a rectangle with length 10m and breadth 5m?
    a) 15 m²
    b) 50 m²
    c) 100 m²
    d) 25 m²
    Answer: b) 50 m²
  6. If the perimeter of a square is 36 cm, what is its area?
    a) 81 cm²
    b) 54 cm²
    c) 36 cm²
    d) 18 cm²
    Answer: a) 81 cm²
  7. Convert 0.75 into a fraction.
    a) 3/4
    b) 7/5
    c) 1/4
    d) 5/7
    Answer: a) 3/4
  8. If x + 3 = 10, then x = ?
    a) 5
    b) 7
    c) 8
    d) 10
    Answer: b) 7
  9. What is 20% of 150?
    a) 25
    b) 30
    c) 35
    d) 40
    Answer: b) 30
  10. Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?
    a) 13
    b) 14
    c) 15
    d) 16
    Answer: c) 15

General Intelligence & Reasoning (51-60)

  1. If A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, then what is the sum of the letters in the word ‘BAD’?
    a) 7
    b) 6
    c) 5
    d) 4
    Answer: a) 7 (B=2, A=1, D=4)
  2. Find the odd one out: Apple, Banana, Mango, Carrot
    a) Apple
    b) Banana
    c) Mango
    d) Carrot
    Answer: d) Carrot (vegetable)
  3. Complete the analogy: Bird is to Fly as Fish is to?
    a) Swim
    b) Run
    c) Walk
    d) Jump
    Answer: a) Swim
  4. Find the missing number: 2, 4, 8, 16, __, 64
    a) 20
    b) 30
    c) 32
    d) 40
    Answer: c) 32
  5. If ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘3120’, then what is the code for ‘DOG’?
    a) 4157
    b) 4156
    c) 4167
    d) 3167
    Answer: b) 4156
  6. In a certain code, ‘PAPER’ is written as ‘QBQFS’. How is ‘BOOK’ written?
    a) CPPL
    b) CPQL
    c) CPQL
    d) COOK
    Answer: a) CPPL
  7. Which number is the smallest? 0.2, 0.02, 0.002, 0.0002
    a) 0.2
    b) 0.02
    c) 0.002
    d) 0.0002
    Answer: d) 0.0002
  8. If 4 pencils cost ₹20, what is the cost of 10 pencils?
    a) ₹40
    b) ₹45
    c) ₹50
    d) ₹55
    Answer: c) ₹50
  9. Choose the pair which is different from the others:
    a) Pen and Pencil
    b) Apple and Orange
    c) Table and Chair
    d) Car and Bottle
    Answer: d) Car and Bottle
  10. If in a code, ‘MATH’ is written as ‘NZUI’, what will be the code for ‘CHEM’?
    a) DIFN
    b) DJFN
    c) DIJN
    d) DFGN
    Answer: a) DIFN

General Awareness (70-80)

  1. Which amendment gave the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right in India?
    a) 73rd Amendment
    b) 86th Amendment
    c) 42nd Amendment
    d) 91st Amendment
    Answer: b) 86th Amendment
  2. The famous Konark Sun Temple is located in which state?
    a) Andhra Pradesh
    b) Odisha
    c) West Bengal
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: b) Odisha
  3. The first Indian to win a Nobel Prize was?
    a) Rabindranath Tagore
    b) C.V. Raman
    c) Mother Teresa
    d) Amartya Sen
    Answer: a) Rabindranath Tagore
  4. What is the currency of Japan?
    a) Yen
    b) Won
    c) Dollar
    d) Peso
    Answer: a) Yen
  5. Who is known as the ‘Father of Indian Constitution’?
    a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    b) B.R. Ambedkar
    c) Mahatma Gandhi
    d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: b) B.R. Ambedkar
  6. The “Green Revolution” in India is related to which sector?
    a) Industry
    b) Agriculture
    c) Education
    d) Technology
    Answer: b) Agriculture
  7. Which Indian state is the largest producer of tea?
    a) Assam
    b) West Bengal
    c) Kerala
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: a) Assam
  8. Which gas is primarily responsible for causing global warming?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Nitrogen
    c) Carbon Dioxide
    d) Hydrogen
    Answer: c) Carbon Dioxide
  9. Which ocean is the largest in the world?
    a) Atlantic Ocean
    b) Indian Ocean
    c) Pacific Ocean
    d) Arctic Ocean
    Answer: c) Pacific Ocean
  10. Who was the first President of India?
    a) Rajendra Prasad
    b) Zakir Hussain
    c) S. Radhakrishnan
    d) V.V. Giri
    Answer: a) Rajendra Prasad
  11. The Bharat Ratna is awarded for excellence in?
    a) Sports
    b) Literature
    c) Arts and Public Service
    d) Science
    Answer: c) Arts and Public Service

Mathematics (81-90)

  1. What is 25% of 240?
    a) 50
    b) 60
    c) 70
    d) 80
    Answer: b) 60
  2. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 60 cm and length is 15 cm, what is the breadth?
    a) 10 cm
    b) 12 cm
    c) 15 cm
    d) 20 cm
    Answer: b) 12 cm
  3. Simplify: 12 × (15 ÷ 3) + 7
    a) 47
    b) 60
    c) 67
    d) 57
    Answer: c) 67
  4. What is the cube of 4?
    a) 12
    b) 16
    c) 64
    d) 81
    Answer: c) 64
  5. A man buys an article for ₹240 and sells it for ₹300. What is his profit percentage?
    a) 20%
    b) 25%
    c) 30%
    d) 35%
    Answer: b) 25%
  6. If 8 workers can complete a job in 15 days, how many days will 12 workers take to complete the same job?
    a) 8 days
    b) 10 days
    c) 12 days
    d) 20 days
    Answer: b) 10 days
  7. What is the average of 12, 15, 18, 21, and 24?
    a) 15
    b) 18
    c) 20
    d) 22
    Answer: b) 18
  8. Find the missing number in the series: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
    a) 60
    b) 70
    c) 112
    d) 128
    Answer: c) 112
  9. If 5 pencils cost ₹15, what is the cost of 8 pencils?
    a) ₹20
    b) ₹22
    c) ₹24
    d) ₹25
    Answer: c) ₹24
  10. What is the simple interest on ₹5000 for 2 years at 5% per annum?
    a) ₹400
    b) ₹500
    c) ₹600
    d) ₹700
    Answer: b) ₹500

General Intelligence & Reasoning (91-100)

  1. If the word ‘RAIN’ is written as ‘UBLO’, what is the code for ‘SNOW’?
    a) UQPY
    b) UOPY
    c) UPQY
    d) VQPY
    Answer: a) UQPY
  2. Find the odd one out: Circle, Triangle, Square, Rectangle, Cube
    a) Circle
    b) Triangle
    c) Square
    d) Cube
    Answer: d) Cube
  3. In a certain code, ‘MANGO’ is written as ‘ONIPQ’. How is ‘APPLE’ written?
    a) CRRNG
    b) CRQNG
    c) CRRNH
    d) CRQNH
    Answer: a) CRRNG
  4. Which letter comes next in the series? A, C, F, J, O, ?
    a) T
    b) U
    c) S
    d) R
    Answer: a) T
  5. Find the missing number: 3, 9, 27, ?, 243
    a) 54
    b) 72
    c) 81
    d) 90
    Answer: c) 81
  6. If ‘2’ means ‘+’, ‘3’ means ‘-’, and ‘4’ means ‘×’, what is the value of 5 2 3 4 2 6?
    a) 47
    b) 28
    c) 37
    d) 39
    Answer: d) 39
    (Calculation: 5 + 3 – 4 × 2 + 6 = 5 + 3 – 8 + 6 = 6)
  7. Which one is the odd number out: 12, 15, 18, 22, 24
    a) 15
    b) 18
    c) 22
    d) 24
    Answer: c) 22
  8. If BOOK is written as COOL, then TOOL is written as?
    a) VOOM
    b) VOOL
    c) VOLL
    d) VOML
    Answer: b) VOOL
  9. What comes next: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    a) 50
    b) 60
    c) 80
    d) 100
    Answer: c) 80
  10. Find the next number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
    a) 30
    b) 35
    c) 36
    d) 49
    Answer: c) 36

Why Practice These MCQs?

  • Cover all important topics: From mathematics to current affairs, these questions cover the entire syllabus.
  • Exam pattern familiarization: Helps you get used to the question style and options.
  • Time management: Practice helps solve questions quickly and accurately.
  • Boost confidence: Regular practice increases your chances to clear the RRB NTPC exam.

Final Tips for RRB NTPC Exam 2025 Preparation

  • Revise all concepts and formulas regularly.
  • Practice at least 50 questions daily from different topics.
  • Take mock tests to analyze your speed and accuracy.
  • Stay updated with current affairs and government schemes.
  • Maintain a positive attitude and manage exam stress.

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