Category Archives: Central Govt Job

LIC Assistant Recruitment 2026: Eligibility, Exam Pattern & Preparation Tips

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The LIC Assistant (Clerk-level) recruitment 2026 is one of the most anticipated government job notifications for graduates across India. Aspirants have been waiting for the official notification, and while it has not yet been released, all signs point to an imminent announcement.

This guide covers everything candidates need to know, including eligibility criteria, exam pattern, expected vacancy, and preparation strategies to secure a stable career in India’s largest insurance organization.

What Is LIC Assistant Recruitment 2026?

LIC Assistant recruitment is conducted to fill clerical positions in LIC offices and branches nationwide. Selected candidates perform key roles such as:

  • Customer service and policy documentation
  • Cash handling and account operations
  • Administrative and branch support

The recruitment process typically involves:

  1. Preliminary Examination
  2. Main Examination
  3. Language Proficiency Test

This structured process ensures that only well-prepared candidates are selected for the role.

Why LIC Assistant Recruitment 2026 Is Pending

Despite high demand, the LIC Assistant recruitment has been delayed due to several factors:

  1. Official Notification Not Released – LIC is yet to publish the final notification for 2026.
  2. Finalizing Vacancies – LIC may be reviewing staffing needs and branch-wise allocations before announcing vacancies.
  3. Coordination With Other Recruitments – LIC conducts multiple recruitment drives, including AAO and ADO, which may influence the timing of the Assistant notification.

Expected Timeline for LIC Assistant 2026

Based on trends from previous years, the tentative schedule is:

StageTentative Timeline
Official NotificationApril–May 2026
Online RegistrationShortly after notification
Preliminary ExamJune 2026 (expected)
Main ExamAugust 2026 (expected)
Language Proficiency TestLater in 2026

These are estimated dates and may vary once the official notification is released.

Eligibility Criteria for LIC Assistant 2026

Candidates applying for LIC Assistant 2026 must typically meet the following requirements:

  • Education: Bachelor’s degree from a recognized university
  • Age Limit: 18–30 years (relaxation for reserved categories and ex-servicemen)
  • Nationality: Indian citizen

Meeting the eligibility criteria is essential before preparing for this recruitment.

LIC Assistant Exam Pattern

The selection process usually includes three stages:

  1. Preliminary Examination – Tests English/Hindi language, reasoning ability, and numerical aptitude.
  2. Main Examination – More in-depth test of the same sections with higher difficulty.
  3. Language Proficiency Test – Ensures candidates are proficient in the regional language for branch postings.

The detailed syllabus will be released with the official notification.

Why LIC Assistant Jobs Are Popular

LIC Assistant positions are highly desirable because they offer:

  • Stable government/insurance sector career
  • Regular pay scale with allowances
  • Opportunities for promotions and transfers nationwide
  • Exposure to banking and insurance operations

The delayed notification has increased anticipation and competition among aspirants.

How to Prepare for LIC Assistant 2026

Candidates can use the waiting period effectively:

1. Understand the Exam Pattern

Familiarize yourself with Prelims + Mains structure and the topics in reasoning, numerical ability, and language.

2. Strengthen Your Basics

Focus on accuracy, speed, and time management. Solve mock tests and practice papers regularly.

3. Stay Updated

Monitor LIC careers and employment news portals for official notification release.

4. Practice Long-Tail Questions

Prepare for questions such as:

  • “When will LIC Assistant 2026 notification release?”
  • “How to apply for LIC Assistant online?”
  • “What is the LIC Assistant exam syllabus?”

FAQ Section (Highly SEO-Friendly)

Q1: Who can apply for LIC Assistant 2026?
Graduates meeting age and nationality criteria can apply. Reserved categories and ex-servicemen get age relaxations.

Q2: What is the LIC Assistant exam pattern?
The exam has three stages: Preliminary, Main, and Language Proficiency Test. Prelims are qualifying, Mains determine merit, and the language test finalizes selection.

Q3: When is the LIC Assistant notification expected?
Experts estimate April–May 2026, but candidates should wait for the official announcement.

Q4: How can I prepare for LIC Assistant 2026?
Focus on reasoning, numerical ability, English/Hindi language, time management, and practice mock tests.

Q5: Are there any government allowances or benefits?
Yes, LIC Assistants receive regular pay, allowances, job stability, and opportunities for promotion and transfers.

CBSE Recruitment 2025: Latest Opening for 124 Group A, B & C

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📢 Latest CBSE Recruitment 2025 Notification

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has released its latest recruitment notification for 2025, announcing 124 vacancies for Group A, Group B, and Group C posts. This recruitment drive is a great opportunity for candidates looking for a central government job with job security, good salary, and long-term career growth.

Eligible candidates can apply online before the closing date.

🏢 Organization Details

  • Recruiting Authority: Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
  • Job Type: Central Government Job
  • Post Category: Group A, B & C
  • Application Mode: Online
  • Job Location: Across India

📌 CBSE Vacancy 2025 – Post Details

A total of 124 vacancies have been announced for various posts, including:

  • Assistant Secretary
  • Assistant Director
  • Accounts Officer
  • Assistant Professor
  • Superintendent
  • Junior Translation Officer
  • Junior Accountant
  • Junior Assistant

Post-wise vacancy details are mentioned in the official notification.

🎓 Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification

  • 12th Pass – Junior & clerical posts
  • Graduate Degree – Administrative & officer-level posts
  • Post-Graduate / Professional Qualification – Senior posts

Age Limit

  • Minimum Age: 18 years
  • Maximum Age: As per post requirement

Age relaxation is applicable for reserved categories as per government rules.

📝 How to Apply for CBSE Recruitment 2025

  1. Visit the official CBSE recruitment portal
  2. Open the CBSE Recruitment 2025 application page
  3. Complete registration using a valid email ID and mobile number
  4. Fill the application form carefully
  5. Upload required documents
  6. Pay the application fee (if applicable)
  7. Submit the form and download the confirmation page

💰 Application Fee

  • General / OBC: As per notification
  • SC / ST / PwBD / Female: Fee relaxation applicable

🧪 Selection Process

The selection process may include:

  • Written Examination (CBT)
  • Skill Test / Interview (if applicable)
  • Document Verification

Final selection will be based on merit.

💼 Salary Structure

Salary will be provided as per the 7th Pay Commission:

  • Group A: ₹56,100 – ₹1,77,500
  • Group B: ₹35,400 – ₹1,12,400
  • Group C: ₹19,900 – ₹63,200

Additional allowances include DA, HRA, TA, medical benefits, and pension.

📅 Important Dates

  • Application Start Date: Ongoing
  • Last Date to Apply Online: 27 December 2025
  • Exam Date: To be announced

🔗 Important Links

⭐ Why Apply for CBSE Latest Opening?

✔ Central Government Job
✔ Attractive Salary & Benefits
✔ Job Security
✔ Career Growth
✔ All-India Posting

🔔 Final Note

Candidates should read the official notification carefully before applying and complete the application well before the deadline.

Most Expected SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 Question Paper

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Meta Description:
Get ready for the SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 exam with the most expected question paper! Practice this complete set of MCQs covering all sections — General Intelligence, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension — along with answers.

📝 Introduction

The SSC CGL Tier 1 exam is one of the most awaited government exams of the year. To help you prepare effectively, we’ve compiled a most expected question paper for 2025 based on exam patterns and previous years’ trends.

Practice these MCQs to boost your confidence and improve your speed and accuracy.

📋 Exam Pattern Recap

  • Total Questions: 100
  • Sections:
    1. General Intelligence & Reasoning – 25 Qs
    2. General Awareness – 25 Qs
    3. Quantitative Aptitude – 25 Qs
    4. English Comprehension – 25 Qs
  • Total Marks: 200
  • Duration: 60 minutes
  • Negative Marking: 0.5 marks per wrong answer

1️⃣ General Intelligence & Reasoning (25 MCQs)

  1. Find the odd one out: 2, 3, 5, 9, 11
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 5
    d) 9
    Answer: d) 9
  2. Complete the series: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    a) 50
    b) 60
    c) 80
    d) 100
    Answer: c) 80
  3. If A is brother of B and B is sister of C, what is C to A?
    a) Brother
    b) Sister
    c) Could be either
    d) Father
    Answer: c) Could be either
  4. In a code, TABLE = UBCME. How is CHAIR written?
    a) DIBJS
    b) DIJBS
    c) DIBSJ
    d) DIBJS
    Answer: a) DIBJS
  5. Next number in 3, 9, 27, 81, ?
    a) 108
    b) 162
    c) 243
    d) 324
    Answer: c) 243
  6. Find the missing number: 2, 4, 12, 48, ?
    a) 192
    b) 240
    c) 180
    d) 256
    Answer: a) 192
  7. Which word does NOT belong: Apple, Banana, Carrot, Mango
    a) Apple
    b) Banana
    c) Carrot
    d) Mango
    Answer: c) Carrot
  8. What comes next: Z, X, V, T, ?
    a) R
    b) S
    c) Q
    d) P
    Answer: a) R
  9. If ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘XZG’, how is ‘DOG’ coded?
    a) WLT
    b) WKT
    c) WJU
    d) VLT
    Answer: a) WLT
  10. Which number replaces the question mark? 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
    a) 70
    b) 112
    c) 84
    d) 108
    Answer: b) 112
  11. Which shape will complete the pattern? (Visual question – omitted here)
    a) Square
    b) Triangle
    c) Circle
    d) Rectangle
    Answer: b) Triangle
  12. Find the code for ‘BRIDGE’ if B=2, R=18, I=9, D=4, G=7, E=5, and code is sum of letters.
    a) 45
    b) 43
    c) 40
    d) 50
    Answer: a) 45
  13. A is twice as old as B. 5 years ago, A was three times as old as B. Find B’s present age.
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: a) 10
  14. Which letter comes next? A, C, F, J, ?
    a) O
    b) N
    c) M
    d) P
    Answer: a) O
  15. Pointing to a man, a woman says, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
    a) Mother
    b) Aunt
    c) Grandmother
    d) Sister
    Answer: a) Mother
  16. Rearrange the letters in ‘EVALUATE’ to form a meaningful word.
    a) VALUE
    b) ELEVATE
    c) VAULT
    d) ALUATE
    Answer: b) ELEVATE
  17. Which number comes next: 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?
    a) 10
    b) 11
    c) 12
    d) 13
    Answer: d) 13
  18. In a certain code, ‘PENCIL’ is ‘QFODJM’. What is ‘RULER’?
    a) SVKFS
    b) SVLFS
    c) SVKER
    d) SVKFT
    Answer: a) SVKFS
  19. How many triangles are there in the figure? (Visual question – omitted)
    a) 10
    b) 12
    c) 14
    d) 16
    Answer: b) 12
  20. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, which of these will be the mirror image of the figure? (Visual question – omitted)
    a) Option 1
    b) Option 2
    c) Option 3
    d) Option 4
    Answer: a) Option 1
  21. Find the odd number out: 21, 33, 46, 57, 69
    a) 21
    b) 33
    c) 46
    d) 69
    Answer: c) 46
  22. The code for ‘FARM’ is ‘IDUP’. What is the code for ‘CROP’?
    a) FURS
    b) FUSQ
    c) FUSP
    d) FUSO
    Answer: a) FURS
  23. A clock shows 3:15. What is the angle between hour and minute hands?
    a) 7.5°
    b) 0°
    c) 15°
    d) 30°
    Answer: a) 7.5°
  24. Find the next number: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ?
    a) 40
    b) 45
    c) 49
    d) 64
    Answer: c) 49
  25. If 3x + 4 = 19, then x = ?
    a) 4
    b) 5
    c) 6
    d) 7
    Answer: b) 5

2️⃣ General Awareness (25 MCQs)

  1. Who is the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
    a) Mahatma Gandhi
    b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    c) Jawaharlal Nehru
    d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Currency of Japan?
    a) Yen
    b) Yuan
    c) Dollar
    d) Won
    Answer: a) Yen
  3. Most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Carbon Dioxide
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Hydrogen
    Answer: c) Nitrogen
  4. Author of ‘Discovery of India’?
    a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    b) Rabindranath Tagore
    c) Subhash Chandra Bose
    d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  5. Who built the Taj Mahal?
    a) Akbar
    b) Shah Jahan
    c) Aurangzeb
    d) Jahangir
    Answer: b) Shah Jahan
  6. The Capital of Australia is?
    a) Sydney
    b) Melbourne
    c) Canberra
    d) Brisbane
    Answer: c) Canberra
  7. The longest river in India?
    a) Ganges
    b) Brahmaputra
    c) Godavari
    d) Yamuna
    Answer: a) Ganges
  8. The chemical symbol for Gold?
    a) Au
    b) Ag
    c) Gd
    d) Go
    Answer: a) Au
  9. National animal of India?
    a) Lion
    b) Tiger
    c) Elephant
    d) Peacock
    Answer: b) Tiger
  10. The first Prime Minister of India?
    a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    b) Jawaharlal Nehru
    c) Indira Gandhi
    d) Rajendra Prasad
    Answer: b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  11. What is the SI unit of Force?
    a) Newton
    b) Pascal
    c) Joule
    d) Watt
    Answer: a) Newton
  12. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
    a) Venus
    b) Mars
    c) Jupiter
    d) Saturn
    Answer: b) Mars
  13. The International Day of Yoga is celebrated on?
    a) 21 June
    b) 15 August
    c) 1 January
    d) 2 October
    Answer: a) 21 June
  14. Who discovered Penicillin?
    a) Marie Curie
    b) Alexander Fleming
    c) Louis Pasteur
    d) Isaac Newton
    Answer: b) Alexander Fleming
  15. The largest continent?
    a) Africa
    b) Asia
    c) Europe
    d) Antarctica
    Answer: b) Asia
  16. The currency of UK?
    a) Euro
    b) Dollar
    c) Pound Sterling
    d) Franc
    Answer: c) Pound Sterling
  17. The Nobel Prize is awarded in how many categories?
    a) 5
    b) 6
    c) 7
    d) 8
    Answer: b) 6
  18. Where is the headquarters of WHO?
    a) New York
    b) Geneva
    c) Paris
    d) London
    Answer: b) Geneva
  19. The founder of Sikhism?
    a) Guru Nanak
    b) Guru Gobind Singh
    c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
    d) Guru Arjan Dev
    Answer: a) Guru Nanak
  20. Which country is known as the Land of the Rising Sun?
    a) China
    b) Japan
    c) South Korea
    d) Thailand
    Answer: b) Japan
  21. Which of these is a greenhouse gas?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Nitrogen
    c) Carbon Dioxide
    d) Helium
    Answer: c) Carbon Dioxide
  22. What is the chemical formula for water?
    a) H2O
    b) CO2
    c) NaCl
    d) O2
    Answer: a) H2O
  23. The Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to which Indian in 1913?
    a) Rabindranath Tagore
    b) Sarojini Naidu
    c) C.V. Raman
    d) Amartya Sen
    Answer: a) Rabindranath Tagore
  24. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
    a) Indira Gandhi
    b) Sarojini Naidu
    c) Pratibha Patil
    d) Sushma Swaraj
    Answer: a) Indira Gandhi
  25. The chemical element with atomic number 1 is?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Hydrogen
    c) Helium
    d) Nitrogen
    Answer: b) Hydrogen

3️⃣ Quantitative Aptitude (25 MCQs)

  1. 15% of 200 = ?
    a) 25
    b) 30
    c) 35
    d) 40
    Answer: b) 30
  2. 5 + 3 × 6 ÷ 2 – 4 = ?
    a) 10
    b) 12
    c) 13
    d) 14
    Answer: c) 13
  3. Speed of train that covers 120 km in 2 hours?
    a) 50 km/h
    b) 60 km/h
    c) 55 km/h
    d) 70 km/h
    Answer: b) 60 km/h
  4. Cost price of 10 pens = selling price of 8 pens. Profit %?
    a) 15%
    b) 20%
    c) 25%
    d) 30%
    Answer: c) 25%
  5. Average of five numbers is 20. If one number excluded, average is 18. Excluded number?
    a) 25
    b) 26
    c) 28
    d) 30
    Answer: d) 30
  6. If x + y = 10 and x – y = 2, find x.
    a) 4
    b) 6
    c) 8
    d) 10
    Answer: b) 6
  7. What is 20% of 150?
    a) 25
    b) 30
    c) 35
    d) 40
    Answer: b) 30
  8. What is the square root of 256?
    a) 14
    b) 15
    c) 16
    d) 17
    Answer: c) 16
  9. The perimeter of a square is 64 cm. Find its area.
    a) 256 sq.cm
    b) 512 sq.cm
    c) 128 sq.cm
    d) 64 sq.cm
    Answer: a) 256 sq.cm
  10. If 3 workers complete a job in 8 days, how many days will 6 workers take?
    a) 4 days
    b) 6 days
    c) 3 days
    d) 5 days
    Answer: a) 4 days
  11. What is 25% of 160?
    a) 30
    b) 40
    c) 45
    d) 50
    Answer: b) 40
  12. If a man runs 60 meters in 15 seconds, what is his speed in m/s?
    a) 3
    b) 4
    c) 5
    d) 6
    Answer: c) 4
  13. What is 0.5 × 0.2?
    a) 0.1
    b) 0.01
    c) 1
    d) 10
    Answer: a) 0.1
  14. Simplify: 12 ÷ (2 × 2) + 3
    a) 6
    b) 5
    c) 4
    d) 3
    Answer: b) 5
  15. Find the next number in 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
    a) 18
    b) 20
    c) 32
    d) 24
    Answer: c) 32
  16. 45% of 200 = ?
    a) 80
    b) 85
    c) 90
    d) 95
    Answer: c) 90
  17. A shopkeeper gives 10% discount on an article priced at ₹500. What is the selling price?
    a) ₹400
    b) ₹450
    c) ₹475
    d) ₹500
    Answer: b) ₹450
  18. If the ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 56, find the larger number.
    a) 24
    b) 28
    c) 32
    d) 36
    Answer: c) 32
  19. What is 15% of 300?
    a) 45
    b) 50
    c) 55
    d) 60
    Answer: a) 45
  20. 10² + 12² = ?
    a) 244
    b) 244
    c) 244
    d) 244
    Answer: 244
  21. What is 1/4 of 80?
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: c) 20
  22. If 5x = 20, then x = ?
    a) 2
    b) 3
    c) 4
    d) 5
    Answer: c) 4
  23. What is the value of π (pi) approximately?
    a) 3.14
    b) 3.15
    c) 3.16
    d) 3.17
    Answer: a) 3.14
  24. Find the simple interest on ₹1000 for 2 years at 5% p.a.
    a) ₹50
    b) ₹100
    c) ₹150
    d) ₹200
    Answer: b) ₹100
  25. 100 ÷ 4 × 2 = ?
    a) 25
    b) 40
    c) 50
    d) 75
    Answer: c) 50

4️⃣ English Comprehension (25 MCQs)

  1. Choose the correctly spelled word:
    a) Recieve
    b) Receive
    c) Recive
    d) Receeve
    Answer: b) Receive
  2. Synonym of ‘Happy’:
    a) Sad
    b) Joyful
    c) Angry
    d) Lazy
    Answer: b) Joyful
  3. Fill in the blank: She _____ to the market yesterday.
    a) goes
    b) went
    c) gone
    d) going
    Answer: b) went
  4. Identify the error: He don’t like ice cream.
    a) He
    b) don’t
    c) like
    d) ice cream
    Answer: b) don’t (should be doesn’t)
  5. One-word substitution for ‘a person who writes poems’:
    a) Novelist
    b) Poet
    c) Dramatist
    d) Author
    Answer: b) Poet
  6. Choose the correct article: She has ____ umbrella.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
    Answer: b) an
  7. Find the antonym of ‘Brave’:
    a) Courageous
    b) Fearful
    c) Strong
    d) Bold
    Answer: b) Fearful
  8. Select the correct sentence:
    a) He go to school every day.
    b) He goes to school every day.
    c) He going to school every day.
    d) He gone to school every day.
    Answer: b) He goes to school every day.
  9. Fill in the blank: They _____ playing cricket now.
    a) is
    b) are
    c) am
    d) be
    Answer: b) are
  10. Choose the correct preposition: He is good _____ math.
    a) on
    b) in
    c) at
    d) by
    Answer: c) at
  11. Replace the underlined word with a suitable synonym: She is very angry.
    a) Happy
    b) Furious
    c) Calm
    d) Sad
    Answer: b) Furious
  12. Select the correct plural form:
    a) Childs
    b) Childes
    c) Children
    d) Child
    Answer: c) Children
  13. Choose the correct option: I have _____ apple.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
    Answer: b) an
  14. Find the error: She can sings well.
    a) She
    b) can
    c) sings
    d) well
    Answer: c) sings (should be sing)
  15. Find the synonym of ‘Beautiful’:
    a) Ugly
    b) Pretty
    c) Plain
    d) Dark
    Answer: b) Pretty
  16. Which sentence is correct?
    a) He is taller than me.
    b) He is tallest than me.
    c) He taller than me.
    d) He tall than me.
    Answer: a) He is taller than me.
  17. Fill in the blank: This is my _____ book.
    a) friend
    b) friends
    c) friend’s
    d) friends’
    Answer: c) friend’s
  18. Choose the correct tense: They _____ finished their homework.
    a) has
    b) have
    c) had
    d) having
    Answer: b) have
  19. Find the antonym of ‘Hard’:
    a) Difficult
    b) Soft
    c) Tough
    d) Rigid
    Answer: b) Soft
  20. Select the correct form: I _____ to the gym every day.
    a) go
    b) goes
    c) going
    d) gone
    Answer: a) go
  21. Fill in the blank: She _____ a doctor.
    a) am
    b) is
    c) are
    d) be
    Answer: b) is
  22. Identify the part of speech of the word ‘quickly’:
    a) Noun
    b) Verb
    c) Adjective
    d) Adverb
    Answer: d) Adverb
  23. Choose the correct option: He has been _____ since morning.
    a) working
    b) work
    c) worked
    d) works
    Answer: a) working
  24. Replace the underlined word with a synonym: He is a fast runner.
    a) Slow
    b) Quick
    c) Late
    d) Weak
    Answer: b) Quick
  25. Find the error: They was playing football.
    a) They
    b) was
    c) playing
    d) football
    Answer: b) was (should be were)

✅ Final Tips for SSC CGL Tier 1 2025

  • Practice Daily: Regular practice helps improve speed and accuracy.
  • Focus on Weak Areas: Identify topics where you lose marks and work on them.
  • Mock Tests: Take full-length mock exams to get exam-like experience.
  • Time Management: Allocate time wisely to each section during the exam.
  • Stay Updated: For General Awareness, keep yourself updated on current affairs daily.

🔖 Conclusion

This most expected SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 question paper with answers will help you get a realistic idea of what to expect in the exam. Consistent practice of these questions will definitely boost your confidence and improve your chances of cracking the SSC CGL exam.

Best of luck for your preparation!

NHPC Non-Executive Recruitment 2025: Apply Now

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Are you looking for a stable and rewarding government job in the power sector? The National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) has officially announced the recruitment of non-executive positions in 2025. Read on to learn how to apply, key dates, eligibility criteria, salary details, and more.

🚀 NHPC Recruitment 2025: Overview

The NHPC Non-Executive Recruitment 2025 is now open for applications. This is a golden opportunity for diploma and ITI holders who want to build a career in India’s premier hydropower generation company. The recruitment is part of NHPC’s ongoing expansion and modernization projects.

✅ Key Highlights:

  • Recruiting Authority: NHPC Limited
  • Job Type: Central Government Job (Non-Executive Category)
  • Total Vacancies: Multiple (exact numbers available on official site)
  • Job Location: Across India
  • Application Mode: Online
  • Official Website: http://www.nhpcindia.com

📅 Important Dates

EventDate
Notification Release DateAugust 28, 2025
Online Application Start DateAugust 29, 2025
Last Date to ApplySeptember 20, 2025
Exam Date (Tentative)October 2025

🧑‍💼 NHPC Vacancy Details

The recruitment drive includes openings for the following positions:

  • Junior Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Civil)
  • Supervisor (Finance, HR)
  • Draughtsman (Civil, Mechanical)
  • Technician (ITI level trades)

💸 Salary Structure:

  • Junior Engineer: ₹29,600 – ₹1,19,500 (Level 6)
  • Technician/Supervisor: ₹27,000 – ₹1,05,000
  • Other Posts: As per NHPC norms with DA, HRA, and other allowances

🎓 NHPC Recruitment 2025: Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification:

  • Junior Engineer: 3-year full-time Diploma in Engineering (relevant stream)
  • Technician Posts: ITI from recognized NCVT/SCVT institutes
  • Supervisory Roles: Graduate/Postgraduate in relevant discipline

Age Limit:

  • Minimum Age: 18 years
  • Maximum Age: 30 years (as on 01.09.2025)
  • Age Relaxation:
    • SC/ST: 5 years
    • OBC (Non-Creamy Layer): 3 years
    • PwBD: 10 years

📄 How to Apply for NHPC Recruitment 2025

Follow these steps to apply online:

  1. Visit the official NHPC website: nhpcindia.com
  2. Navigate to the “Careers” section.
  3. Click on “Recruitment of Non-Executive Posts – 2025.”
  4. Register using a valid email ID and mobile number.
  5. Fill out the application form carefully.
  6. Upload required documents: photograph, signature, and certificates.
  7. Pay the application fee (if applicable).
  8. Submit the form and download a copy for future reference.

💳 Application Fee

  • General/OBC/EWS: ₹295/-
  • SC/ST/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen: No Fee

Note: Payment can be made via credit card, debit card, net banking, or UPI.

📘 NHPC Exam Pattern & Selection Process

The selection process will be based on:

  • Computer-Based Test (CBT)
  • Document Verification
  • Medical Examination

CBT Pattern:

SubjectNo. of QuestionsMarks
Technical Subject7070
General Aptitude3030
Total100100

💡 Why Choose a Career at NHPC?

  • 🏢 Government job security
  • 🌱 Work with India’s leading hydroelectric power company
  • 💼 Opportunities for career growth
  • 🏖️ Attractive salary, allowances, and benefits
  • 🌍 Postings across scenic hydro project sites in India

📢 Final Words

The NHPC Non-Executive Recruitment 2025 is your chance to land a prestigious government job in the energy sector. Don’t miss out on this opportunity to work with one of India’s top PSUs. Prepare thoroughly and apply before the deadline!

NHPC Recruitment 2025, NHPC Non Executive Recruitment, NHPC Jobs 2025, NHPC Vacancy 2025, NHPC Junior Engineer Vacancy, NHPC Apply Online 2025, NHPC Career Opportunities, NHPC Technician Jobs 2025

NHPCRecruitment #NHPCJobs #GovtJobs2025 #SarkariNaukri #NHPC2025 #JuniorEngineer #TechnicianJobs #PSUJobs #GovernmentJobs #NHPCVacancy #ApplyOnline #HydropowerJobs #JobAlert #CareerOpportunity #NHPCNonExecutive

Most Expected MCQs for RRB NTPC Undergraduate Level Exam 2025: Practice Question Bank

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RRBNTPC2025 #RRBNTPCExam #GovernmentJobs #ExamPreparation #MCQsPractice #RRBNTPCQuestions #CompetitiveExams #RailwayJobs #StudyMaterial #RRBNTPCStudy

Are you preparing for the RRB NTPC Undergraduate Level Exam 2025? To help you ace the exam, we’ve compiled a comprehensive list of 100 most expected multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering key topics like General Awareness, Mathematics, General Intelligence & Reasoning, English, and Current Affairs.

This question bank is designed to boost your confidence and improve your accuracy in the exam. Practice these questions regularly to get familiar with the exam pattern and increase your chances of success!

General Awareness Questions

  1. Who is the current Prime Minister of India in 2025?
    a) Narendra Modi
    b) Manmohan Singh
    c) Rahul Gandhi
    d) Amit Shah
    Answer: a) Narendra Modi
  2. What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh?
    a) Itanagar
    b) Dispur
    c) Guwahati
    d) Shillong
    Answer: a) Itanagar
  3. The longest river in India is?
    a) Ganga
    b) Brahmaputra
    c) Godavari
    d) Yamuna
    Answer: a) Ganga
  1. Who wrote the Indian National Anthem?
    a) Rabindranath Tagore
    b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
    c) Sarojini Naidu
    d) Kavi Pradeep
    Answer: a) Rabindranath Tagore
  2. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
    a) Venus
    b) Mars
    c) Jupiter
    d) Saturn
    Answer: b) Mars

Mathematics

  1. What is 15% of 200?
    a) 20
    b) 25
    c) 30
    d) 35
    Answer: c) 30
  2. If the ratio of two numbers is 5:6 and their HCF is 12, what is their LCM?
    a) 60
    b) 144
    c) 240
    d) 360
    Answer: c) 240
  3. Simplify: (25 × 16) ÷ (20 × 4)
    a) 5
    b) 10
    c) 25
    d) 50
    Answer: a) 5
  4. What is the square root of 196?
    a) 12
    b) 13
    c) 14
    d) 15
    Answer: c) 14
  5. If 3x – 5 = 16, then x = ?
    a) 5
    b) 7
    c) 8
    d) 21
    Answer: b) 7

General Intelligence & Reasoning

  1. Find the next number in the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
    a) 18
    b) 20
    c) 32
    d) 34
    Answer: c) 32
  2. Which one does not belong to the group?
    Dog, Cat, Lion, Car
    a) Dog
    b) Cat
    c) Lion
    d) Car
    Answer: d) Car
  3. If ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘3120’, what is the code for ‘BAT’?
    a) 2120
    b) 2130
    c) 3120
    d) 1230
    Answer: a) 2120
  4. Find the odd one out: 7, 14, 21, 29, 35
    a) 7
    b) 21
    c) 29
    d) 35
    Answer: c) 29
  5. In a certain code, ‘TRAIN’ is written as ‘UISJO’. How is ‘PLANE’ written in that code?
    a) QMBOF
    b) QLBOF
    c) QLBMF
    d) QLBOE
    Answer: a) QMBOF

English Language

  1. Choose the correct antonym of ‘Scarce’:
    a) Rare
    b) Abundant
    c) Little
    d) Few
    Answer: b) Abundant
  2. Fill in the blank: She ____ to the market every day.
    a) go
    b) goes
    c) going
    d) gone
    Answer: b) goes
  3. Select the correctly spelled word:
    a) Recieve
    b) Receive
    c) Recive
    d) Reciev
    Answer: b) Receive
  4. Find the synonym of ‘Happy’:
    a) Sad
    b) Angry
    c) Joyful
    d) Tired
    Answer: c) Joyful
  5. Choose the correct sentence:
    a) He don’t like apples.
    b) He doesn’t like apples.
    c) He doesn’t likes apples.
    d) He don’t likes apples.
    Answer: b) He doesn’t like apples.

Current Affairs

  1. Which country hosted the G20 summit in 2025?
    a) India
    b) Brazil
    c) Italy
    d) Japan
    Answer: a) India
  2. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2024?
    a) Malala Yousafzai
    b) Abiy Ahmed
    c) Svetlana Tikhanovskaya
    d) Narges Mohammadi
    Answer: d) Narges Mohammadi
  3. What is the theme of World Environment Day 2025?
    a) Beat Air Pollution
    b) Ecosystem Restoration
    c) Plastic Pollution
    d) Climate Action
    Answer: b) Ecosystem Restoration
  4. Which Indian city is known as the ‘Silicon Valley of India’?
    a) Hyderabad
    b) Chennai
    c) Bangalore
    d) Pune
    Answer: c) Bangalore
  5. Who is the current RBI Governor (2025)?
    a) Shaktikanta Das
    b) Urjit Patel
    c) Raghuram Rajan
    d) Duvvuri Subbarao
    Answer: a) Shaktikanta Das

More Mathematics and Reasoning

  1. If a train travels 60 km in 50 minutes, what is its speed in km/h?
    a) 72
    b) 70
    c) 75
    d) 80
    Answer: a) 72
  2. If 5 workers can do a job in 20 days, how many days will 10 workers take?
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: a) 10
  3. Find the missing number: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    a) 70
    b) 80
    c) 60
    d) 100
    Answer: b) 80
  4. If ‘P’ means ‘+’, ‘Q’ means ‘-’, and ‘R’ means ‘×’, then what is 6 P 3 Q 2 R 2?
    a) 14
    b) 16
    c) 10
    d) 12
    Answer: a) 14
    (Calculation: 6 + 3 – 2 × 2 = 6 + 3 – 4 = 5)
  5. Find the next number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
    a) 20
    b) 25
    c) 30
    d) 36
    Answer: b) 25

General Awareness (31-40)

  1. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in?
    a) Geneva
    b) New York
    c) Paris
    d) London
    Answer: b) New York
  2. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
    a) Sonia Gandhi
    b) Indira Gandhi
    c) Sarojini Naidu
    d) Pratibha Patil
    Answer: b) Indira Gandhi
  3. Which Indian state has the largest area?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Rajasthan
    c) Madhya Pradesh
    d) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: b) Rajasthan
  4. The Indian currency is known as?
    a) Dollar
    b) Pound
    c) Rupee
    d) Euro
    Answer: c) Rupee
  5. Which is the smallest planet in our solar system?
    a) Mercury
    b) Venus
    c) Mars
    d) Pluto
    Answer: a) Mercury
  6. The Reserve Bank of India was established in?
    a) 1920
    b) 1935
    c) 1947
    d) 1950
    Answer: b) 1935
  7. Who discovered gravity?
    a) Albert Einstein
    b) Isaac Newton
    c) Galileo Galilei
    d) Nikola Tesla
    Answer: b) Isaac Newton
  8. The Taj Mahal was built by which Mughal Emperor?
    a) Akbar
    b) Jahangir
    c) Shah Jahan
    d) Aurangzeb
    Answer: c) Shah Jahan
  9. What is the chemical symbol for Gold?
    a) Au
    b) Ag
    c) Gd
    d) Go
    Answer: a) Au
  10. Which is the largest continent on Earth?
    a) Africa
    b) Asia
    c) Europe
    d) North America
    Answer: b) Asia

Mathematics (41-50)

  1. What is the LCM of 6 and 8?
    a) 12
    b) 18
    c) 24
    d) 48
    Answer: c) 24
  2. If the price of an article is increased by 10%, what is the new price of an article originally priced ₹200?
    a) ₹210
    b) ₹220
    c) ₹230
    d) ₹240
    Answer: b) ₹220
  3. Solve: 7 + 3 × (10 ÷ 2) = ?
    a) 22
    b) 23
    c) 24
    d) 25
    Answer: a) 22
  4. The value of 5³ is:
    a) 15
    b) 25
    c) 100
    d) 125
    Answer: d) 125
  5. What is the area of a rectangle with length 10m and breadth 5m?
    a) 15 m²
    b) 50 m²
    c) 100 m²
    d) 25 m²
    Answer: b) 50 m²
  6. If the perimeter of a square is 36 cm, what is its area?
    a) 81 cm²
    b) 54 cm²
    c) 36 cm²
    d) 18 cm²
    Answer: a) 81 cm²
  7. Convert 0.75 into a fraction.
    a) 3/4
    b) 7/5
    c) 1/4
    d) 5/7
    Answer: a) 3/4
  8. If x + 3 = 10, then x = ?
    a) 5
    b) 7
    c) 8
    d) 10
    Answer: b) 7
  9. What is 20% of 150?
    a) 25
    b) 30
    c) 35
    d) 40
    Answer: b) 30
  10. Find the next number in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?
    a) 13
    b) 14
    c) 15
    d) 16
    Answer: c) 15

General Intelligence & Reasoning (51-60)

  1. If A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, then what is the sum of the letters in the word ‘BAD’?
    a) 7
    b) 6
    c) 5
    d) 4
    Answer: a) 7 (B=2, A=1, D=4)
  2. Find the odd one out: Apple, Banana, Mango, Carrot
    a) Apple
    b) Banana
    c) Mango
    d) Carrot
    Answer: d) Carrot (vegetable)
  3. Complete the analogy: Bird is to Fly as Fish is to?
    a) Swim
    b) Run
    c) Walk
    d) Jump
    Answer: a) Swim
  4. Find the missing number: 2, 4, 8, 16, __, 64
    a) 20
    b) 30
    c) 32
    d) 40
    Answer: c) 32
  5. If ‘CAT’ is coded as ‘3120’, then what is the code for ‘DOG’?
    a) 4157
    b) 4156
    c) 4167
    d) 3167
    Answer: b) 4156
  6. In a certain code, ‘PAPER’ is written as ‘QBQFS’. How is ‘BOOK’ written?
    a) CPPL
    b) CPQL
    c) CPQL
    d) COOK
    Answer: a) CPPL
  7. Which number is the smallest? 0.2, 0.02, 0.002, 0.0002
    a) 0.2
    b) 0.02
    c) 0.002
    d) 0.0002
    Answer: d) 0.0002
  8. If 4 pencils cost ₹20, what is the cost of 10 pencils?
    a) ₹40
    b) ₹45
    c) ₹50
    d) ₹55
    Answer: c) ₹50
  9. Choose the pair which is different from the others:
    a) Pen and Pencil
    b) Apple and Orange
    c) Table and Chair
    d) Car and Bottle
    Answer: d) Car and Bottle
  10. If in a code, ‘MATH’ is written as ‘NZUI’, what will be the code for ‘CHEM’?
    a) DIFN
    b) DJFN
    c) DIJN
    d) DFGN
    Answer: a) DIFN

General Awareness (70-80)

  1. Which amendment gave the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right in India?
    a) 73rd Amendment
    b) 86th Amendment
    c) 42nd Amendment
    d) 91st Amendment
    Answer: b) 86th Amendment
  2. The famous Konark Sun Temple is located in which state?
    a) Andhra Pradesh
    b) Odisha
    c) West Bengal
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: b) Odisha
  3. The first Indian to win a Nobel Prize was?
    a) Rabindranath Tagore
    b) C.V. Raman
    c) Mother Teresa
    d) Amartya Sen
    Answer: a) Rabindranath Tagore
  4. What is the currency of Japan?
    a) Yen
    b) Won
    c) Dollar
    d) Peso
    Answer: a) Yen
  5. Who is known as the ‘Father of Indian Constitution’?
    a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    b) B.R. Ambedkar
    c) Mahatma Gandhi
    d) Sardar Patel
    Answer: b) B.R. Ambedkar
  6. The “Green Revolution” in India is related to which sector?
    a) Industry
    b) Agriculture
    c) Education
    d) Technology
    Answer: b) Agriculture
  7. Which Indian state is the largest producer of tea?
    a) Assam
    b) West Bengal
    c) Kerala
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: a) Assam
  8. Which gas is primarily responsible for causing global warming?
    a) Oxygen
    b) Nitrogen
    c) Carbon Dioxide
    d) Hydrogen
    Answer: c) Carbon Dioxide
  9. Which ocean is the largest in the world?
    a) Atlantic Ocean
    b) Indian Ocean
    c) Pacific Ocean
    d) Arctic Ocean
    Answer: c) Pacific Ocean
  10. Who was the first President of India?
    a) Rajendra Prasad
    b) Zakir Hussain
    c) S. Radhakrishnan
    d) V.V. Giri
    Answer: a) Rajendra Prasad
  11. The Bharat Ratna is awarded for excellence in?
    a) Sports
    b) Literature
    c) Arts and Public Service
    d) Science
    Answer: c) Arts and Public Service

Mathematics (81-90)

  1. What is 25% of 240?
    a) 50
    b) 60
    c) 70
    d) 80
    Answer: b) 60
  2. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 60 cm and length is 15 cm, what is the breadth?
    a) 10 cm
    b) 12 cm
    c) 15 cm
    d) 20 cm
    Answer: b) 12 cm
  3. Simplify: 12 × (15 ÷ 3) + 7
    a) 47
    b) 60
    c) 67
    d) 57
    Answer: c) 67
  4. What is the cube of 4?
    a) 12
    b) 16
    c) 64
    d) 81
    Answer: c) 64
  5. A man buys an article for ₹240 and sells it for ₹300. What is his profit percentage?
    a) 20%
    b) 25%
    c) 30%
    d) 35%
    Answer: b) 25%
  6. If 8 workers can complete a job in 15 days, how many days will 12 workers take to complete the same job?
    a) 8 days
    b) 10 days
    c) 12 days
    d) 20 days
    Answer: b) 10 days
  7. What is the average of 12, 15, 18, 21, and 24?
    a) 15
    b) 18
    c) 20
    d) 22
    Answer: b) 18
  8. Find the missing number in the series: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
    a) 60
    b) 70
    c) 112
    d) 128
    Answer: c) 112
  9. If 5 pencils cost ₹15, what is the cost of 8 pencils?
    a) ₹20
    b) ₹22
    c) ₹24
    d) ₹25
    Answer: c) ₹24
  10. What is the simple interest on ₹5000 for 2 years at 5% per annum?
    a) ₹400
    b) ₹500
    c) ₹600
    d) ₹700
    Answer: b) ₹500

General Intelligence & Reasoning (91-100)

  1. If the word ‘RAIN’ is written as ‘UBLO’, what is the code for ‘SNOW’?
    a) UQPY
    b) UOPY
    c) UPQY
    d) VQPY
    Answer: a) UQPY
  2. Find the odd one out: Circle, Triangle, Square, Rectangle, Cube
    a) Circle
    b) Triangle
    c) Square
    d) Cube
    Answer: d) Cube
  3. In a certain code, ‘MANGO’ is written as ‘ONIPQ’. How is ‘APPLE’ written?
    a) CRRNG
    b) CRQNG
    c) CRRNH
    d) CRQNH
    Answer: a) CRRNG
  4. Which letter comes next in the series? A, C, F, J, O, ?
    a) T
    b) U
    c) S
    d) R
    Answer: a) T
  5. Find the missing number: 3, 9, 27, ?, 243
    a) 54
    b) 72
    c) 81
    d) 90
    Answer: c) 81
  6. If ‘2’ means ‘+’, ‘3’ means ‘-’, and ‘4’ means ‘×’, what is the value of 5 2 3 4 2 6?
    a) 47
    b) 28
    c) 37
    d) 39
    Answer: d) 39
    (Calculation: 5 + 3 – 4 × 2 + 6 = 5 + 3 – 8 + 6 = 6)
  7. Which one is the odd number out: 12, 15, 18, 22, 24
    a) 15
    b) 18
    c) 22
    d) 24
    Answer: c) 22
  8. If BOOK is written as COOL, then TOOL is written as?
    a) VOOM
    b) VOOL
    c) VOLL
    d) VOML
    Answer: b) VOOL
  9. What comes next: 5, 10, 20, 40, ?
    a) 50
    b) 60
    c) 80
    d) 100
    Answer: c) 80
  10. Find the next number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
    a) 30
    b) 35
    c) 36
    d) 49
    Answer: c) 36

Why Practice These MCQs?

  • Cover all important topics: From mathematics to current affairs, these questions cover the entire syllabus.
  • Exam pattern familiarization: Helps you get used to the question style and options.
  • Time management: Practice helps solve questions quickly and accurately.
  • Boost confidence: Regular practice increases your chances to clear the RRB NTPC exam.

Final Tips for RRB NTPC Exam 2025 Preparation

  • Revise all concepts and formulas regularly.
  • Practice at least 50 questions daily from different topics.
  • Take mock tests to analyze your speed and accuracy.
  • Stay updated with current affairs and government schemes.
  • Maintain a positive attitude and manage exam stress.

RRB NTPC 2025 MCQs, RRB NTPC Undergraduate Level questions, RRB NTPC practice questions, RRB NTPC exam 2025 preparation, RRB NTPC expected questions, RRB NTPC question bank, RRB NTPC model questions, RRB NTPC mock questions, government job exam preparation, RRB NTPC syllabus 2025

India Post Recruitment 2025: 21413 Vacancies

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#BreakingJobNews #India_Post

India Post Recruitment 2024: Apply Now.

India Post has published a recruitment notification for the post of Branch Post Master, Assistant Branch Post Master and Gramin Dak Sevak (GDS). Read full mews here.

Vacancies:

Total 21413 vacancies are out.

Eligibility:

1. Secondary School Examination pass certificate of 10th standard having passed in Mathematics and English (having been studied as compulsory or elective subjects) conducted by any recognized Board of School Education by the Government of India/State Governments/ Union Territories in India shall be a mandatory educational qualification for all approved categories of GDS.

2. Compulsory Knowledge of Local Language.

Age:

Between 18-40 years.

Important Dates:

Starting Date of Online Application – 10 Feb 25.

Last Date of Online Application – 03 Mar 25.

How to Apply?

1. Candidates are requested to read full notification before applying for the post. Official website as mentioned below:

Click Here for Official Website

2. Register online as per steps given in official notification.

3. Keep one copy of online application form for future reference.

For More Latest Job Notification click below:

http://breakingjobnews.in

SSC CGL Pre 2024: Final Answer Key

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#SSC_CGL_2024

Staff Selection Commission Released final answer key of CGL 2024

Candidate can now check their final answer key from below mentioned link and would be available till 08 Jan 25.

Take a print of this copy for future reference.

Click Here for Official Site

IMU Recruitment 2024 Assistant & Assistant (Finance): Result Out

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#IMU

Indian Maritime University announced final results and wait list for recruitment of Assistant and Assistant (Finance) in their official website.

Candidates can check their results by visiting below official link:

Direct link for result

All the best candidates. Keep visiting our website for latest updates.

SSC CHSL 2024 Tier II: Answer Key Out

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#SSC_CHSL_2024

Tier-II of Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2024 was conducted by the
Commission on 18.11.2024 at different centers across the country. Staff Selection Commision released tentative answer key today (26 Nov 24).

The candidate’s Response Sheets along with the tentative Answer Keys are now available on
the link given below. The candidates may login with the link provided below by using their
Registered Login-ID and Password.

Representations in respect of the tentative Answer Keys, if any, may be submitted online from
26.11.2024 (04:00PM) to 28.11.2024 (04:00PM) on payment of INR 100 per question per answer
challenged. Representations received after 04:00 PM on 28.11.2024 will not be entertained under any circumstances.

4. Candidates’ may take a print out of their respective Response Sheets, as the same will not be
available after the above specified time limit.

Link for answer key:

Answer Key Link

All the best. Keep visiting us for new updates.

SSC CGL 2024: Mains Date Out

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#SSC_CGL_2024

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) announced dates for their upcoming exams including SSC CGL Tier II

SSC CGL Tier ii

According to this notice, SSC CGL Tier II exam is going to be held on 18, 19 and 20 Jan 25.

Aspirants those who are eagerly waiting for this are now relaxed.

Keep checking our portal for latest updates.

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